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pentagon [3]
3 years ago
5

Which is the best definition of wind?

Physics
2 answers:
LekaFEV [45]3 years ago
5 0
Wind moves in all directions so it's not A, B, or C.

It's D. the movement of air between two objects that are in contact<span>
</span>
snow_lady [41]3 years ago
5 0

The answer is D. the movement of air between two objects that are in contact.


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A coffee filter of mass 1.2 grams dropped from a height of 1 m reaches the ground with a speed of 0.8 m/s. How much kinetic ener
iren [92.7K]

<u>Answer:</u> The energy gained by the air molecules is 0.011 J.

<u>Explanation:</u>

Law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but it can only be transformed from one form to another form.

Here, the potential energy of the coffee filter is getting converted into kinetic energy of the coffee filter and some energy is lost by it which is gained by the air molecules in the form of kinetic energy.

So, calculating the potential energy of coffee filter, we use the equation:

P = mgh

where,

m = mass of coffee filter = 1.2 g = 1.2\times 10^{-3}kg    (Conversion used: 1 kg = 1000 g)

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s^2

h = height of coffee filter = 1 m

Putting values in above equation, we get:

P=1.2\times 10^{-3}kg\times 9.8m/s^2\times 1m\\\\P=1.176\times 10^{-2}J

  • Calculating the kinetic energy of coffee filter, we use the equation:

E=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where,

m = mass of coffee filter = 1.2 g = 1.2\times 10^{-3}kg

v = speed of coffee filter = 0.8 m/s

Putting values in above equation, we get:

E=\frac{1}{2}\times 1.2\times 10^{-3}kg\times (0.8m/s)^2\\\\E=3.84\times 10^{-4}J

As, energy lost by coffee filter = energy gained by air molecules

So, energy lost by coffee filter = Potential energy - Kinetic energy

Energy lost by coffee filter = (1.176\times 10^{-2})-(3.84\times 10^{-4})=0.011J

Hence, the energy gained by the air molecules is 0.011 J.

5 0
3 years ago
1. What is the speed of a wave with wavelength 2.5m and frequency 20Hz?
Korvikt [17]

Answer:

50m/s

Explanation:

v = f*w

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When water waves undergo diffraction, state what is the
Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

Speed

Explanation:

Because it depends the speed of the waves

5 0
3 years ago
A simple pendulum takes 128s to complete 40 oscillations what is the time period of the pendulum
Serhud [2]

Explanation:

Parameters

Number of oscillation = 40 oscillations

Time of oscillation = 128s

Formular

Period (T) = <u>No of oscillation</u>

Time taken

T = <u>128</u>

40

T=3.2s

3 0
3 years ago
I’ll name u BRAINLIEST if u get this right
nekit [7.7K]
V = m1 u1 - m2 u2 / m1
v = 0.01 * 500 - 2 * 1.4 / 0.01
v = 220 m/s
7 0
3 years ago
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