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Anettt [7]
3 years ago
8

How many directions can you travel in 1 dimension?

Physics
1 answer:
stepladder [879]3 years ago
5 0

Explanation:

By one dimension, one means motion along a line, or in one particular direction. Think of a car going down a straight road, or a person running on a straight track.

...

1. Motion in one dimension

2. Average velocity.

3. Instantaneous velocity.

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A 2.7-kg block is released from rest and allowed to slide down a frictionless surface and into a spring. The far end of the spri
exis [7]

a) The speed of the block at a height of 0.25 m is 2.38 m/s

b) The compression of the spring is 0.25 m

c) The final height of the block is 0.54 m

Explanation:

a)

We can solve the problem by using the law of conservation of energy. In fact, the total mechanical energy (sum of kinetic+gravitational potential energy) must be conserved in absence of friction. So we can write:

U_i +K_i = U_f + K_f

where

U_i is the initial potential energy, at the top

K_i is the initial kinetic energy, at the top

U_f is the final potential energy, at halfway

K_f is the final kinetic energy, at halfway

The equation can be rewritten as

mgh_i + \frac{1}{2}mu^2 = mgh_f + \frac{1}{2}mv^2

where:

m = 2.7 kg is the mass of the block

g=9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity

h_i = 0.54 is the initial height

u = 0 is the initial speed

h_f = 0.25 m is the final height of the block

v is the final speed when the block is at a height of 0.25 m

Solving for v,

v=\sqrt{u^2+2g(h_i-h_f)}=\sqrt{0+2(9.8)(0.54-0.25)}=2.38 m/s

b)

The total mechanical energy of the block can be calculated from the initial conditions, and it is

E=K_i + U_i = 0 + mgh_i = (2.7)(9.8)(0.54)=14.3 J

At the bottom of the ramp, the gravitational potential energy has become zero (because the final heigth is zero), and all the energy has been converted into kinetic energy. However, then the block compresses the spring, and the maximum compression of the spring occurs when the block stops: at that moment, all the energy of the block has been converted into elastic potential energy of the spring. So we can write

E=E_e = \frac{1}{2}kx^2

where

k = 453 N/m is the spring constant

x is the compression of the spring

And solving for x, we find

x=\sqrt{\frac{2E}{k}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(14.3)}{453}}=0.25 m

c)

If there is no friction acting on the block, we can apply again the law of conservation of energy. This time, the initial energy is the elastic potential energy stored in the spring:

E=E_e = 14.3 J

while the final energy is the energy at the point of maximum height, where all the energy has been converted into gravitational potetial energy:

E=U_f = mg h_f

where h_f is the maximum height reached. Solving for this quantity, we find

h_f = \frac{E}{mg}=\frac{14.3}{(2.7)(9.8)}=0.54 m

which is the initial height: this is correct, because the total mechanical energy is conserved, so the block must return to its initial position.

Learn more about kinetic and potential energy:

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5 0
3 years ago
An output is a Push or pull _________________________ on the object
Ugo [173]

Answer:

The input force that you use on an inclined plane is the force with which you push or pull an object. The output force is the force that you would need to lift the object without the inclined plane. This force is equal to the weight of the object.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Compute the work performed when 32 pounds is lifted 10 feet.
Murljashka [212]
W = force * displacement
W = 32 pounds * 10 feet
Now you need to convert it to newton and meters
W = 142 N * 3.048 m = 434 J
(I approximated the conversions- I hope it helps)
7 0
3 years ago
How much water will flow in 30 secs through 200 mm of capillary tube of 1.50 mm in diameter, if the pressure difference across t
Paladinen [302]

The water outflow in 30 secs through 200 mm of the capillary tube is mathematically given as

Qo=1.6 \times 10^{2} \mathrm{~mL}

<h3>What is the water outflow in 30 secs through 200 mm of the capillary tube?</h3>

\begin{aligned}\Delta P &=6660 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{m}^{2} \\\mu &=8.01 \times 10^{-4} \text { Pas } \\t &=30 \mathrm{~s} \\L &=200 \mathrm{~mm}=200 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~m} \\D &=1.5 \mathrm{~mm}=1.5 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{~m} \Rightarrow \gamma=\frac{1.5 \times 10^{-3}}{2} \mathrm{~m}\end{aligned}

Generally, the equation for Rate of flow of Liquid is  mathematically given as

\\$$Q=\frac{\pi r^{4} \times \Delta P}{8 \mu L}

$$

Where dP is pressure difference r is the radius

\mu is the viscosity of water

L is the length of the pipe

Q=\frac{\pi \times\left(\frac{1.5 \times 10^{-3}}{2}\right)^{4} \times 6660}{8 \times 8.01 \times 10^{-4} \times 200 \times 10^{-3}}

Q=5.2 \mathrm{~mL} / \mathrm{s}

In $30s the quantity that flows out of the tube

&Qo=5.2 \times 30 \\&Qo=1.6 \times 10^{2} \mathrm{~mL}

In conclusion, the quantity that flows out of the tube

Qo=1.6 \times 10^{2} \mathrm{~mL}

Read more about the flows rate

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5 0
1 year ago
1 question, brainliest for whoever gets it right.
Kaylis [27]

Answer:

im pretty sure the answer is c please mark me brainliest

6 0
2 years ago
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