Answer:
C) 64lb
Explanation:
use the linearity method to find the weight of nadir on another planet, it is applied as follows.
Nadir Weight in earth ⇒ Nadir weight in another planet
Vince Weigh in eart ⇒ X
our goal is to find the weight of vince in another planet (X), for this we multiply the diagonal that continents the data and divide among the remaining
140pounds ⇒ 56lb
160pounds ⇒ X
X=
Vince weigh on the other planet is C) 64lb
Answer:
College student's commitment
Explanation:
The dependent variable is the college students since it is the variable we are going to measure as a result of the independent variable which is the hazardous hazing ritual or non-hazardous hazing ritual.
1) A negatively charged ion is chloride
2) Moving from left to right, valence electrons increase by one.
3) The period number gives information about how many energy levels it has
4) Fluorine has a charge of 1–
5) Potassium and iodine form an ionic bond
The periodic table is an arrangement of elements into groups and periods based on their periodic properties.
In the periodic table, elements are arranged in groups and periods. There are 18 groups and 8 periods.
Chlorine is in group 17, there have seven outermost electrons hence the chlorine atom needs only one more electron in order to attain a stable octet. This is done by accepting one electron to form the negatively charged chloride ion.
As we move from one period to another, one extra electron is added to the outermost shell of elements. Hence, the valence electrons increases by one.
The period to which an element belongs shows you the number of shells or energy levels in the atom of that element.
Fluorine is in group 17. One electron is needed to achieve a stable octet. When an atom accepts one electron, its charge is 1–.
Bonding based on ionic charges occurs between metals and nonmetals. Potassium is a metal of group 1 and iodine is a non metal of group 17 hence they can bond together based on their ionic charges.
Learn more:brainly.com/question/23277186
Explanation:
Load=800N
Effort=200N
1. Mechanical Advantage = LOAD/EFFORT
= 800N/200N
= 4
2 Velocity Ratio = no. Of pulleys =5
3. Efficiency = Mechanical advantage / velocity ratio × 100%
= (4/5)×100%
=80%
4. output work= load×load distance
= 800N × 5m
= 4 × 1000J
5. Efficiency = (output work/input work) ×100%
Or, 80% = (4000J/input work) ×100%
Or, 80%/100% = 4000J/inputwork
Or, 4/5 = 4000J/inputwork
Or, input work =4000J × 5/4
Input work = 5×1000J
I hope it helped! ;-)
