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Rudik [331]
3 years ago
12

If yellowstone supervolcano erupts while you are visiting, and the ash cloud accelerates at 20 meters per second squared, how fa

st is it moving one minute ater the eruptiond
Physics
1 answer:
andreyandreev [35.5K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1200m/s

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Acceleration = 20m/s²

Time taken = 1 minute = 60 seconds

Unknown:

Speed = ?

Solution:

The acceleration of a body is its rate of change of velocity with time. It is mathematically expressed as:

         Acceleration = \frac{change in velocity}{time}

  Change in velocity = acceleration x time

Now, velocity and speed are very similar and are often interchanged. It is excellent to bear in mind that velocity is form of speed that takes cognizance of direction.

  Change in velocity = 20 x 60 = 1200m/s

Therefore, the ash is moving at a rate of 1200m/s

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You are standing in a building whose height (40m) you throw a ball downward at a angle of -30 at a speed of (10m/s) acceleration
jeyben [28]

Answer: 3.41 s

Explanation:

Assuming the question is to find the time t the ball is in air, we can use the following equation:

y=y_{o}+V_{o}sin \theta t-\frac{1}{2}gt^{2}

Where:

y=0m is the final height of the ball

y_{o}=40 m is the initial height of the ball

V_{o}=10 m/s is the initial velocity of the ball

t is the time the ball is in air

g=9.8 m/s^{2} is the acceleration due to gravity  

\theta=30\°

Then:

0 m=40 m+(10 m/s)(sin(30\°))t-\frac{1}{2}9.8 m/s^{2}t^{2}

0 m=40 m+5m/s t-4.9 m/s^{2}t^{2}

Multiplying both sides of the equation by -1 and rearranging:

4.9 m/s^{2}t^{2}-5m/s t-40 m=0

At this point we have a quadratic equation of the form at^{2}+bt+c=0, which can be solved with the following formula:

t=\frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^{2}-4ac}}{2a}

Where:

a=4.9

b=-5

c=-40

Substituting the known values:

t=\frac{-(-5) \pm \sqrt{(-5)^{2}-4(4.9)(-40)}}{2(4.9)}

Solving the equation and choosing the positive result we have:

t=3.41 s  This is the time the ball is in air

5 0
4 years ago
A pendulum has 294 J of potential energy at the highest point of its swing. How much kinetic energy will it have at the bottom o
baherus [9]

Newton's law of conservation states that energy of an isolated system remains a constant. It can neither be created nor destroyed but can be transformed from one form to the other.


Implying the above law of conservation of energy in the case of pendulum we can conclude that at the bottom of the swing the entire potential energy gets converted to kinetic energy. Also the potential energy is zero at this point.


Mathematically also potential energy is represented as


Potential energy= mgh


Where m is the mass of the pendulum.


g is the acceleration due to gravity


h is the height from the bottom z the ground.


At the bottom of the swing,the height is zero, hence the potential energy is also zero.


The kinetic energy is represented mathematically as


Kinetic energy= 1/2 mv^2


Where m is the mass of the pendulum


v is the velocity of the pendulum


At the bottom the pendulum has the maximum velocity. Hence the kinetic energy is maximum at the bottom.


Energy can neither be created e destroyed. It can only be transferred from one form to another. Implying this law and the above explainations we conclude that at the bottom of the pendulum,the potential energy=0 and the kinetic energy=294J as the entire potential energy is converted to kinetic energy at the bottom.



6 0
4 years ago
A bicycle tire has a pressure of 7.00×105 N/m2 at a temperature of 18.0ºC and contains 2.00 L of gas. What will its pressure be
stepan [7]

Answer:

p_2 = 664081 N/m^{2}

Explanation:

from the ideal gas law we have

PV = mRT

P = \rho RT

\rho = \frac{P}{RT}

HERE  R is gas constant for dry air  =  287  J K^{-1} kg^{-1}

\rho = \frac{7.00 10^{5}}{287(18+273)}

\rho = 8.38 kg/m^{3}

We know by ideal gas law

\rho = \frac{m_1}{V_1}

m_1 = \rho V_1 = 8.38 *2*10^{-3}

m_1 = 0.0167 kg

for m_2

m_2 = \rho V_i - V_removed

m_2 = 8.38*(.002 - 10^{-4})

m_2 = 0.0159 kg

WE KNOW

PV = mRT

V, R and T are constant therefore we have

P is directly proportional to mass

\frac{p_2}{p_1}=\frac{m_2}{m_1}

p_2 = p_1 * \frac{m_2}{m_1}

p_2 =7*10^{5} * \frac {.0159}{0.0167}

p_2 = 664081 N/m^{2}

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Answer:

My best friend lol cuz since quarantine i didn't see her

8 0
3 years ago
In which direction does a bag at rest move when a force of 20 newtons is applied from the right? A. in the direction of the appl
-Dominant- [34]

The correct answer is A. In the direction of applied force. This is because acceleration occurs n the direction of applied force according to Newtons second law of motion which states that the acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the applied force and takes place in the direction of force.

5 0
3 years ago
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