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sergejj [24]
3 years ago
13

At what speed is a particle's kinetic energy twice its rest energy?

Physics
1 answer:
bezimeni [28]3 years ago
5 0
The total energy of a particle is its rest energy plus the kinetic energy. Its formula is: Et= m^2/sqrt((1-v^2)/c^2))
The rest energy is equal to the product of mass and the square of light velocity: Er=mc^2.
When the kinetics energy is twice its rest energy this holds:
Et=Er
m^2/sqrt((1-v^2)/c^2))=<span>mc^2.
</span><span>sqrt((1-v^2)/c^2))=m/c^2
</span>=> v=sqrt(3/2)c
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If i try to fail and succeed which one did I do
Novay_Z [31]
You've failed because you failing becomes a statement rather than it becoming fact or what actually happened. 
7 0
3 years ago
What is the correct definition of a fracture?
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

The correct definition of a fracture is break in the bone

<u>Explanation:</u>

When nay injury results in the breaking or causing any cracking in the bones of any parts then this will lead to fracture. When the injury caused is near the ligament or tissue in which the bone is connected or attached then it will lead to an avulsion fractures. Thus this will lead to the pulling of bone form the original position thereby leading more pain in the spot associated with the fracture.

Sports people are the victims of this type of fracture. Fracture may occur anywhere mostly legs,hands,ankle,hip and elbow. sometimes it may be in finger, shoulder,knee,etc. The main symptoms that are associated with fracture includes, selling, inability in moving the fractured part or pain associated when trying to move that part, Loss of the affected part's function,etc.

4 0
3 years ago
Two particles oscillate in simple harmonic motion along a common straight-line segment of length 1.0 m. Each particle has a peri
igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

a) the particles are <em>0.217 m </em>apart

b) <em>the particles are moving in the same direction</em>.

Explanation:

a) The amplitude of the oscillations is A/2 and the period of each particle is

T = 1.5 s however, they differ by a phase of π/6 rad. Let the phase of the first particle be zero so that the phase of the second particle is π/6. So we can write the coordinates of each of the particles as,

x₁ = A/2 cos(ωt)

x₂ = A/2 cos(ωt + π/6)

we can write the angular frequency ω, as

ω = 2π / T

so,

x₁ = A/2 cos(2π / T)

x₂ = A/2 cos(2π / T + π/6)

Thus, the coordinates of the particles at t = 0.45 s are,

x₁ = A/2 cos((2π × 0.45) / 1.5)) = -0.155 A

x₂ = A/2 cos((2π × 0.45) / 1.5) + π/6) = -0.372 A

Their separation at that time is, therefore,

Δx = x₁ - x₂

    = -0.155 A + 0.372 A

    = 0.217 A

since A = 1 m

Thus,

<em>Δx  = 0.217 m</em>

<em></em>

<em></em>

b) In order to find their directions, we must take the derivatives at t = 0.45 s.

Therefore,

v₁ = dx₁ / dt

   = (-πA / T) sin(2πt / T)

   = -(π(1) / 1.5) sin(2π(0.45) / 1.5)

   = -1.99

and,

v₂ = dx₂ / dt

   = (-πA / T) sin((2πt / T) + π/6)

   = -(π(1) / 1.5) sin((2π(0.45) / 1.5) + π/6)

   = -1.40

Since both v₁ and v₂ are negative, this shows that <em>the particles are moving in the same direction</em>.

6 0
3 years ago
Why are paperclips attracted to magnets? Group of answer choices They contain silver They contain aluminum They contain tin They
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

They contain iron.

Explanation:

Iron is made of metal and magnets attract to metal Iron.

5 0
3 years ago
What would be the final temperature if you mixed a liter of 40C water with 2 liters of 20C water?
riadik2000 [5.3K]

Answer:

I found  

33 ∘ C

Explanation:

i hope this helps :)

5 0
2 years ago
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