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Zielflug [23.3K]
3 years ago
15

. Draw the sketches of two waves A and B such that wave A has twice the wavelength and half the amplitude of wave B.

Physics
1 answer:
Pavel [41]3 years ago
4 0

Wave B will, therefore, be considered more powerful than wave A. Waves with higher frequencies are more energetic than those with lower frequencies. The equation below demonstrates this. The higher the amplitude also, the higher the energy of the wave.

v = f λ

Where,

v = velocity of the wave,

f = frequency of the wave,

λ = wavelength.

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Why is it better to breathe through the nose than the mouth?
Citrus2011 [14]
You could get sick by breathing throw your mouth and you have a less chance of getting sick by breathing throw your nose.
3 0
3 years ago
What is the surface pressure of Venus?
kiruha [24]

answers 93 bar

The atmosphere of Venus is the layer of gases surrounding Venus. It is composed primarily of carbon dioxide and is much denser and hotter than that of Earth. The temperature at the surface is 740 K (467 °C, 872 °F), and the pressure is 93 bar (9.3 MPa), roughly the pressure found 900 m (3,000 ft) underwater on Earth.

3 0
3 years ago
One end of a thin rod is attached to a pivot, about which it can rotate without friction. Air resistance is absent. The rod has
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

6.86 m/s

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing the total energy balance, i.e:

initial (KE + PE)  = final (KE + PE). { KE = Kinetic Energy and PE = Potential Energy}

Since the rod comes to a halt at the topmost position, the KE final is 0. Therefore, all the KE initial is changed to PE, i.e, ΔKE = ΔPE.

Now, at the initial position (the rod hanging vertically down), the bottom-most end is given a velocity of v0. The initial angular velocity(ω) of the rod is given by ω = v/r , where v is the velocity of a particle on the rod and r is the distance of this particle from the axis.

Now, taking v = v0 and r = length of the rod(L), we get ω = v0/ 0.8 rad/s

The rotational KE of the rod is given by KE = 0.5Iω², where I is the moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation and this is given by I = 1/3mL², where L is the length of the rod. Therefore, KE = 1/2ω²1/3mL² = 1/6ω²mL². Also, ω = v0/L, hence KE = 1/6m(v0)²

This KE is equal to the change in PE of the rod. Since the rod is uniform, the center of mass of the rod is at its center and is therefore at a distane of L/2 from the axis of rotation in the downward direction and at the final position, it is at a distance of L/2 in the upward direction. Hence ΔPE = mgL/2 + mgL/2 = mgL. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Now, 1/6m(v0)² = mgL ⇒ v0 = \sqrt{6gL}

Hence, v0 = 6.86 m/s

4 0
3 years ago
Assume that the position vector of A is r=i+j+k . Determine the moment about the origin O if the force F=(1)i+(0)j+(5)k . The mo
ddd [48]

Answer:

M₀ = 5i - 4j - k

Explanation:

Using the cross product method, the moment vector(M₀) of a force (F) is about a given point is equal to cross product of the vector A from the point (r) to anywhere on the line of action of the force itself. i.e

M₀ = r x F

From the question,

r = i + j + k

F = 1i + 0j +  5k

Therefore,

M₀ = (i + j + k) x (1i + 0j +  5k)

M₀ = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}i&j&k\\1&1&1\\1&0&5\end{array}\right]

M₀ = i(5 - 0) -j(5 - 1) + k(0 - 1)

M₀ = i(5) - j(4) + k(-1)

M₀ = 5i - 4j - k

Therefore, the moment about the origin O of the force F is

M₀ = 5i - 4j - k

3 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me on no. 6
liq [111]

Efficiency = (energy that does the job) / (total energy used)

               =                               (45 J)  /  (120J)

I think you can handle the division.

8 0
3 years ago
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