Ask question

Ask question

All categories

2 years ago

5

Why does the midi system have the widest range of frequencies

2 answers:

Zanzabum2 years ago

7 0

<span>Question:
Why does the midi system have the widest range of frequencies

Answer:
</span>
Each of these instruments have a very wide range of notes because these are all treble instruments. Now, if you mean altogether, with a trumpet you can hit a very wide range of notes due to it having such a high octave, same with a violin, piano, clarinet, and organ. Kettle drums just have a very manipulable sound.
But remember it is a MIDI System, and you can adjust the frequency according to your desire; So, honestly, there is no straight answer for this, just how you desire the sound.

I could take an A4 note on a trumpet and stretch the sound waves out to sound like an A1 note just by bending it with a MIDI System. So, the possibilities are endless.

Hope this helps :D

P.S been playing the piano for 7 years so I use midi alot.

Mrac [35]2 years ago

5 0

The Midi System has the widest range of frequencies because it doesn't care about the range of frequency of the actual instrument it is playing. it is a event oriented system.

You might be interested in

A vertical cylinder with a heavy piston contains air at 300 K. The initial pressure is 2.0 x 105 Pa and the initial volume is 0.

aleksklad [387]

Find answers and explanations in the attachments

8 0

2 years ago

A thin plate 6 ft long and 3 ft wide is submerged and held stationary in a stream of water (T = 60°F) that has a velocity of 17

VashaNatasha [74]

A) In the case of the Boundary Thickness Layer we use the given formula,

$\delta = \frac{4.91x}{\sqrt{Re}}$

We know as well that,

Re = Número de Reynolds = $\frac{U*x}{\upsilon}$

Where,

U = velocity

$\upsilon$ = kinematic viscosity

For water, kinematic viscosity, $\upsilon = 1.21*10^{-5} ft^2 /s$

So, $500,000 = \frac{ 17x}{(1.21*10^{-5})}$

$x = 0.355 ft$

$d = \frac{4.91*0.355}{\sqrt {500000}}$

$d = 0.002465 ft = 0.029in$

B) For flat plate boundary layer. Given the Critical Reynolds Number.= 5*10^5 we know that is equal to Re above.

Thus, $x = 0.355 ft$

C. Wall shear stress,

$\tau = \mu*\sqrt{ U^3 / (2*\nu*x) }$

For water, dynamic viscosity, $\nu$ = 2.344*10^-5 lbf-s/ft^2

$\tau = 2.344*10^-5 \sqrt {17^3 / (2*1.21*10^{-5}*0.355)}$

$\tau = 0.5605 lbf/ft^2$

4 0

2 years ago

On a beautiful night in Washington D.C., you see a mirror image of US Capitol and surrounding scenery. What causes this mirror i

Mekhanik [1.2K]

The correct response is D. This is because light is reflected of the building onto the water that is hitting the building.

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How many phase changes does ice undergo when it changes to water vapor in the water cycle?

Dmitriy789 [7]

Let's see..

- Melting
-Evaporation.

Two.

4 0

2 years ago

The patellar tendon attaches to the tibia at a 20 deg angle 3 cm from the axis of rotation at the knee. If the force generated i

gregori [183]

Answer:

the resulting angular acceleration is 15.65 rad/s²

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

force generated in the patellar tendon F = 400 N

patellar tendon attaches to the tibia at a 20° angle 3 cm( 0.03 m ) from the axis of rotation at the knee.

so Torque produced by the knee will be;

T = F × d⊥

T = 400 N × 0.03 m × sin( 20° )

T = 400 N × 0.03 m × 0.342

T = 4.104 N.m

Now, we determine the moment of inertia of the knee

I = mk²

given that; the lower leg and foot have a combined mass of 4.2kg and a given radius of gyration of 25 cm ( 0.25 m )

we substitute

I = 4.2 kg × ( 0.25 m )²

I = 4.2 kg × 0.0626 m²

I = 0.2625 kg.m²

So from the relation of Moment of inertia, Torque and angular acceleration;

T = I∝

we make angular acceleration ∝, subject of the formula

∝ = T / I

we substitute

∝ = 4.104 / 0.2625

∝ = 15.65 rad/s²

Therefore, the resulting angular acceleration is 15.65 rad/s²

8 0

2 years ago