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telo118 [61]
4 years ago
13

A company buys a machine for $12,000, which it agrees to pay for in five equal annual payments, beginning one year after the dat

e of purchase, at an annual interest rate of 4%. Immediately after the second payment, the terms are changed such that the company can pay off the loan immediately in a lump sum during the following year. What is the final single payment?
Engineering
1 answer:
Yuki888 [10]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$7,778.35

Explanation:

At year 3, the final payment of the remaining balance is equal to the present worth P of the last three payments.

First, calculate the uniform payments A:

A = 12000(A/P, 4%, 5)

= 12000(0.2246) = 2695.2  (from the calculator)

Then take the last three payments as its own cash flow.

To calculate the new P:

P = 2695.2 + 2695.2(P/A, 4%, 2) = 2695.2 + 2695.2(1.886) = 7778.35

Therefore, the final payment is $7,778.35

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A 3-phase induction motor is being driven at a frequency of 80 Hz, and the motor speed is 1000 rpm. How many poles does the moto
Masteriza [31]

Answer:

8 poles

Slip= 16.67%

Explanation:

We use the formula for synchronous speed, N_s=\frac {120 f}{p}

Where f is the frequency and p is the number of poles

Since frequency is given as 80 Hz and the motor speed also given as 1000 rpm then making p the subject of the above formula we get

p=\frac {120 f}{N_s}

By substitution

p=\frac {120 \times 80}{1000}=9.6\approx 8 poles

To find the slip, we now use the actual N_s and since we know that N_s=\frac {120 f}{p} and p=8 then

N_s=\frac {120 \times 80}{8}=1200

The motor speed is now N_r=1000 rpm

To find slip, we use the formula

Slip=\frac {N_s- N_r}{N_s} \times 100

Then by substitution

Slip=\frac {1200-1000}{1200}\times 100=0.166666667\times 100\approx 16.67

Therefore, slip=16.67%

8 0
3 years ago
if stall speed in ktas for an aircraft us 100 ktas at sea level, what is the stall speed in ktas of the aircraft at 5000 ft dens
inysia [295]

Answer:

my friend here justin

Explanation:

hes already taken

6 0
3 years ago
(a) Consider a germanium semiconductor at T 300 K. Calculate the thermal equilibrium electron and hole concentrations for (i) Nd
padilas [110]

Answer:

a.

i. electron concentration, n₀ = 2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³, hole concentration, p₀ = 2 × 10¹¹ cm⁻³

ii. electron concentration, n₀ = 1.33 × 10¹¹ cm⁻³, hole concentration, p₀ = 3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

b.  

i. electron concentration, n₀ = 2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³, hole concentration, p₀ = 2.205 × 10⁻³ cm⁻³

ii. electron concentration, n₀ = 1.47 × 10⁻³ cm⁻³, hole concentration, p₀ = 3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

c. It means that the minority carrier contribute little to the conductivity of the semi-conductor.

Explanation:

a. For Germanium, intrinsic concentration n₁ = 2 × 10¹³ cm⁻³.

i. For the electron concentration, n₀ wit N₁ = donor concentration = 2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ and N₂ = acceptor concentration = 0,

n₀ = 1/2[(N₁ - N₂) +√[(N₁ - N₂)² + 4n₁²] ]      since N₁ > N₂

n₀ = 1/2[(2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ - 0) +√[(2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ - 0)² + 4(2 × 10¹³ cm⁻³)²] ]

n₀ = 1/2[(2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ +√[(4 × 10³⁰ cm⁻⁶ + 16 × 10²⁶ cm⁻⁶] ]

n₀ = 1/2[(2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ +√[(4.0016 × 10³⁰ cm⁻⁶] ]

n₀ = 1/2[(2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ + 2.0004 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ ]

n₀ = 1/2[4.0004 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ ]

n₀ = 2.0002 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ ≅ 2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

The hole concentration p₀ is gotten from

n₀p₀ = n₁²

p₀ = n₁²/n₀ = (2 × 10¹³ cm⁻³)²/2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ = 4 × 10²⁶ cm⁻⁶/2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

p₀ = 2 × 10¹¹ cm⁻³

ii.  For the hole concentration, p₀ wit N₁ = donor concentration = 7 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ and N₂ =  acceptor concentration = 10¹⁶ cm⁻³,

p₀ = 1/2[(N₂ - N₁) +√[(N₂ - N₁)² + 4n₁²] ]      since N₂ > N₁

p₀ = 1/2[(10¹⁶ cm⁻³ - 7 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³) +√[(10¹⁶ cm⁻³ - 7 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³)² + 4(2 × 10¹³ cm⁻³)²] ]

p₀ = 1/2[(3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ +√[(9 × 10³⁰ cm⁻⁶ + 16 × 10²⁶ cm⁻⁶] ]

p₀ = 1/2[(3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ +√[(9.0016 × 10³⁰ cm⁻⁶] ]

p₀ = 1/2[(3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ + 3.0003 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ ]

p₀ = 1/2[6.0003 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ ]

p₀ = 3.00015 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ ≅ 3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

Te electron concentration n₀ is gotten from

n₀p₀ = n₁²

n₀ = n₁²/p₀ = (2 × 10¹³ cm⁻³)²/3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ = 4 × 10²⁶ cm⁻⁶/3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

n₀ = 1.33 × 10¹¹ cm⁻³

b. For GaAs, intrinsic concentration n₁ = 2 × 10⁶ cm⁻³.

i. For the electron concentration, n₀ wit N₁ = donor concentration = 2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ and N₂ =  acceptor concentration = 0,

n₀ = 1/2[(N₁ - N₂) +√[(N₁ - N₂)² + 4n₁²] ]      since N₁ > N₂   and N₁ - N₂ = 2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ >> n₁ = 2 × 10⁶ cm⁻³

n₀ = (N₁ - N₂) = 2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ - 0 = 2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

The hole concentration p₀ is gotten from

n₀p₀ = n₁²

p₀ = n₁²/n₀ = (2.1 × 10⁶ cm⁻³)²/2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ = 4.41 × 10¹² cm⁻⁶/2 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

p₀ = 2.205 × 10⁻³ cm⁻³

ii. For the hole concentration, p₀ wit N₁ = donor concentration = 7 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ and N₂ =  acceptor concentration = 10¹⁶ cm⁻³,

p₀ = 1/2[(N₂ - N₁) +√[(N₂ - N₁)² + 4n₁²] ]      since N₂ > N₁ and N₂ - N₁ = 10¹⁶ cm⁻³ - 7 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ = 3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ >> n₁ = 2.1 × 10⁶ cm⁻³

p₀ ≅ N₂ - N₁ = 3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

The electron concentration n₀ is gotten from

n₀p₀ = n₁²

n₀ = n₁²/p₀ = (2.1 × 10⁶ cm⁻³)²/3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³ = 4.41 × 10¹² cm⁻⁶/3 × 10¹⁵ cm⁻³

n₀ = 1.47 × 10⁻³ cm⁻³

c. It means that the minority carrier contribute little to the conductivity of the semi-conductor.

4 0
4 years ago
What are factor of safety for brittle and ductile material
galben [10]

Explanation:

Step1

Factor of safety is the number that is taken for the safe design of any component. It is the ratio of failure stress to the maximum allowable stress for the material.

Step2

It is an important parameter for design of any component. This factor of safety is taken according to the environment condition, type of material, strength, type of component etc.

Step3

Different material has different failure stress. So, ductile material fails under shear force. Ductile material’s FOS is based on yield stress as failure stress as after yield point ductile material tends to yield. Brittle material’s FOS is based on ultimate stress as failure stress.

The expression for factor of safety for ductile material is given as follows:

FOS=\frac{\sigma_{yp}}{\sigma_{a}}

Here,\sigma_{f} is yield stress and \sigma_{a} is allowable stress.

The expression for factor of safety for brittle material is given as follows:

FOS=\frac{\sigma_{ut}}{\sigma_{a}}

Here,\sigma_{ut} is ultimate stress and \sigma_{a} is allowable stress.

5 0
3 years ago
A company intends to market a new product and it estimates that there is a 20% chance that it will be first in the market
Stells [14]

The EMV - Ending Market Value is given as:
$2,400,000.

<h3>How is the EMV Arrived At?</h3>

The EMV is given as:

BMV x (i + r); Where

BMV is the Beginning Market Value; and

r is the interest rateor percentage given.

Hence the EMV = 2,000,000 x ( 1 + 20%)

= 2,000,000 x 1.2

= $ 2, 400,000.

It is to be noted that the BMV is the Beginning Market Value which is the value of an investment at the start of the business period.

Learn more about Market Value at:

brainly.com/question/1350233

4 0
3 years ago
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