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MArishka [77]
3 years ago
15

How are we able to break wire by repeated bending​

Physics
2 answers:
Arlecino [84]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

We are able to break it because wire is elastic which means that it stretches. The more we stretch it the more the material comes off.

Explanation:

DIA [1.3K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Repetitive bending cause metal fatigue which is responsible for the break of wire.

Explanation:

Metal fatigue is defined as the weakening of metal when cyclic load is applied on it. Due to metal fatigue cracks are grown in the structure and these cracks become the reason of metal breaking.

Moreover, If the repetitive bending is too fast, heat is produced. This heat changes the structure of atoms in the metal and make it more brittle. That’s why metals break due to repetitive bending.  

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A tennis ball is a hollow sphere with a thin wall. It is set rolling without slipping at 4.03 m/s on the horizontal section of a
seraphim [82]

Answer:

2.38 m/s, 4.31 m/s, lower

Explanation:

a)

Initial energy = final energy

½ m v₀² + ½ I ω₀² = mgh + ½ m v₁² + ½ I ω₁²

Since the ball is rolling without slipping, ω = v / r.

For a hollow sphere, I = ⅔ m r².

½ m v₀² + ½ (⅔ m r²) (v₀ / r)² = mgh + ½ m v₁² + ½ (⅔ m r²) (v₁ / r)²

½ m v₀² + ⅓ m v₀² = mgh + ½ m v₁² + ⅓ m v₁²

⅚ m v₀² = mgh + ⅚ m v₁²

⅚ v₀² = gh + ⅚ v₁²

v₀² = 1.2gh + v₁²

v₁ = √(v₀² − 1.2gh)

Given v₀ = 4.03 m/s, g = 9.80 m/s, h = 0.900 m:

v₁ = √((4.03)² − 1.2 (9.80) (0.900))

v₁ ≈ 2.38 m/s

At the top of the loop, the sum of the forces in the radial direction is:

∑F = ma

W + N = m v² / R

N = m v² / R - mg

N = m (v² / R - g)

Given v = 2.38 m/s, R = 0.450 m, and g = 9.80 m/s²:

N = m ((2.38)² / 0.450 - 9.80)

N = 2.77m

N ≥ 0, so the ball stays on the track.

b)

Initial energy = final energy

Borrowing from part a):

v₂ = √(v₀² − 1.2gh)

This time, h = -0.200 m:

v₂ = √((4.03)² − 1.2 (9.80) (-0.200))

v₂ ≈ 4.31 m/s

c)

Without the rotational energy:

½ m v₀² = mgh + ½ m v₁²

½ v₀² = gh + ½ v₁²

v₀² = 2gh + v₁²

v₁ = √(v₀² - 2gh)

This is less than v₁ we calculated earlier.

6 0
3 years ago
During an experiment of momentum, trolley, X, of mass (2.34 ± 0.01) kg is moving away from another trolley, Y, of mass (2.561 ±
Alla [95]

Answer:

P = 1 (14,045 ± 0.03 )  k gm/s

Explanation:

In this exercise we are asked about the uncertainty of the momentum of the two carriages

            Δ (Pₓ / Py) =?

 Let's start by finding the momentum of each vehicle

car X

        Pₓ = m vₓ

        Pₓ = 2.34 2.5

        Pₓ = 5.85 kg m

car Y

        Py = 2,561 3.2

        Py = 8,195 kgm

How do we calculate the absolute uncertainty at the two moments?

          ΔPₓ = m Δv + v Δm

          ΔPₓ = 2.34 0.01 + 2.561 0.01

          ΔPₓ = 0.05 kg m

         ΔP_{y} = m Δv + v Δm

         ΔP_{y} = 2,561 0.01+ 3.2 0.001

         ΔP_{y} = 0.03 kg m

now we have the uncertainty of each moment

          P = Pₓ / P_{y}

          ΔP = ΔPₓ/P_{y} + Pₓ ΔP_{y} / P_{y}²

          ΔP = 8,195 0.05 + 5.85 0.03 / 8,195²

          ΔP = 0.006 + 0.0026

          ΔP = 0.009 kg m

The result is

           P = 14,045 ± 0.039 = (14,045 ± 0.03 )  k gm/s

7 0
3 years ago
What will be the force if the particle's charge is tripled and the electric field strength is halved? Give your answer in terms
kirza4 [7]

Answer:

F' = (3/2)F

Explanation:

the formula for the electric field strength is given as follows:

E = F/q

where,

E = Electric Field Strength

F = Force due to the electric field

q = magnitude of charge experiencing the force

Therefore,

F = E q   ---------------- equation (1)

Now, if we half the electric field strength and make the magnitude of charge triple its initial value. Then the force will become:

F' = (E/2)(3 q)

F' = (3/2)(E q)

using equation (1)

<u>F' = (3/2)F</u>

3 0
3 years ago
A flute is designed so that it plays a frequency of 261.6 Hz, middle C, when all the holes are covered and the temperature is 20
irinina [24]

Answer:

0.655 m

13.468°C

Explanation:

v = Speed of sound at 20.0°C = 343 m/s (general value)

For one both end open we have the expression

L=\dfrac{\lambda_1}{2}\\\Rightarrow L=\dfrac{\dfrac{v}{f_1}}{2}\\\Rightarrow L=\dfrac{\dfrac{343}{261.6}}{2}\\\Rightarrow L=0.655581039755\ m

The length of the flute is 0.655 m

Beat frequency is given by

\Delta f=f_1-f_2\\\Rightarrow 3=261.6-f_2\\\Rightarrow f_2=261.6-3\\\Rightarrow f_2=258.6\ Hz

Velocity of the wave is

v=f_2\lambda_1\\\Rightarrow v=258.6\times \dfrac{343}{261.6}\\\Rightarrow v=339.066513761\ m/s

The temperature is given by

T=273(\dfrac{v}{331})^2\\\Rightarrow T=273(\dfrac{339.066513761}{331})^2\\\Rightarrow T=286.468227799\ K=286.468227799-273=13.468227799^{\circ}C

The temperature of the room is 13.468°C

4 0
3 years ago
What happens to helium balloons when you let them go?
Ber [7]
They will rise to the 2nd layer of the atmosphere where the temperature decreases by a lot and then they will blow up
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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