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3 years ago

14

The 1 kg box is sliding along a frictionless surface. It collides with and sticks to the 2 kg box. Afterward, the speed of the t

wo boxes is _____

1 answer:

Nina [5.8K]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

The speed of the boxes are 1 m/s.

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of box = 1 kg

Mass of another box = 2 kg

Suppose 1 kg box moves with 3 m/s speed.

We need to calculate the speed of the boxes

Using formula of conservation of momentum

$m_{1}u_{1}+m_{2}u_{2}=(m_{1}+m_{2})v$

Where, u = initial velocity

v = final velocity

Put the value into the formula

$1\times3+2\times0=(1+2)v$

$v=\dfrac{3}{3}$

$v=1\ m/s$

Hence, The speed of the boxes are 1 m/s.

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A 10.0 cm object is 5.0 cm from a concave mirror that has a focal length of 12 cm. What is the distance between the image and th

fiasKO [112]

Let's use the mirror equation to solve the problem:
$\frac{1}{f}= \frac{1}{d_o}+ \frac{1}{d_i}$
where f is the focal length of the mirror, $d_o$ the distance of the object from the mirror, and $d_i$ the distance of the image from the mirror.
For a concave mirror, for the sign convention f is considered to be positive. So we can solve the equation for $d_i$ by using the numbers given in the text of the problem:
$\frac{1}{12 cm}= \frac{1}{5 cm}+ \frac{1}{d_i}$
$\frac{1}{d_i}= -\frac{7}{60 cm}$
$d_i = -8.6 cm$
Where the negative sign means that the image is virtual, so it is located behind the mirror, at 8.6 cm from the center of the mirror.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Can anyone help me please

ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

Gravity.

Rocket ships.

Ball.

Basketball.

Explanation:

Gravity has to do a lot with air. It puts the planets in there area.

Rocket Ship has to do a lot with air. If i'm right, they calculate the area, weather, about the air.

A ball gets throwed in the air, which gravity comes into place.

Basketball is also a similar example to a ball.

7 0

2 years ago

Consider two thin, coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b푏 (a

Wittaler [7]

Answer:

electric potential, V = -q(a²- b²)/8π∈₀r³

Explanation:

Question (in proper order)

Consider two thin coaxial, coplanar, uniformly charged rings with radii a and b (b < a) and charges q and -q, respectively. Determine the potential at large distances from the rings

<em>consider the attached diagram below</em>

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the outer charged ring with radius a is as given below

Va = q/4π∈₀ [1/(a² + b²)¹/²]

$Va = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Also

the electric potential at point p, distance r from the center of the inner charged ring with radius b is

$Vb = \frac{-q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

Sum of the potential at point p is

V = Va + Vb

that is

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } + \frac{-q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * \frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{q}{4\pi e0 } * \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} }]$

the expression below can be written as the equivalent

$\frac{1}{(a^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + a^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

likewise,

$\frac{1}{(b^{2} + r^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{(r^{2} + b^{2} )^{1/2} } = \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }$

hence,

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0} * [\frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{r(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

1/r is common to both equation

hence, we have it out and joined to the 4π∈₀ denominator that is outside

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} } - \frac{1}{{(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{1/2} }]$

by reciprocal rule

1/a² = a⁻²

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [{(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} - {(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2}]$

by binomial expansion of fractional powers

where $(1+a)^{n} =1+na+\frac{n(n-1)a^{2} }{2!}+ \frac{n(n-1)(n-2)a^{3}}{3!}+...$

if we expand the expression we have the equivalent as shown

${(1^{2} + \frac{a^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

also,

${(1^{2} + \frac{b^{2} }{r^{2} } )}^{-1/2} = (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )$

the above equation becomes

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [((1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } ) - (1-\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } )]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [1-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } - 1+\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [-\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} } +\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} }]\\\\V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * [\frac{b^{2} }{2r^{2} } -\frac{a^{2} }{2r^{2} }]$

$V = \frac{q}{4\pi e0 r} * \frac{1}{2r^{2} } *(b^{2} -a^{2} )$

$V = \frac{q}{8\pi e0 r^{3} } * (b^{2} -a^{2} )$

Answer

$V = \frac{q (b^{2} -a^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

OR

$V = \frac{-q (a^{2} -b^{2} )}{8\pi e0 r^{3} }$

8 0

3 years ago

Can you answer the question

Dominik [7]

Can u show the whole question plz

3 0

3 years ago

Two students are watching a person riding a skateboard up and down a ramp. Each student shares what they think about the energy

avanturin [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

We know that , If the frictional force on a system is zero , then the total energy of a system will be conserved.

By using energy conservation

KE₁ + U₁ = KE₂ + U₂

KE₁=Kinetic energy at location 1

U₁ =Potential energy at location 1

KE₂=Kinetic energy at location 2

U₂=Potential energy at location 2

Therefore, Raymond is thinking in a right way.

7 0

2 years ago