Lycaon represents the worst of the iron age in his attempt to feed jupiter once living flesh.
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What is iron age?</h3>
The iron Age is the final epoch of the three-age division of the prehistory and protohistory of humanity.
It was preceded by the Stone Age, and the Bronze Age.
Who is lycaon?
In Greek mythology, Lycaon was a king of Arcadia who, in the most popular version of the myth, tested Zeus' omniscience by serving him the roasted flesh of Lycaon's own son Nyctimus, in order to see whether Zeus was truly all-knowing.
Thus, Lycaon represents the worst of the iron age in his attempt to feed jupiter once living flesh.
Learn more about lycaon here: brainly.com/question/18610700
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Answer:
a) variation of the energy is equal to the work of the friction force
b) W = Em_{f} -Em₀
, c) he conservation of mechanical energy
Explanation:
a) In an analysis of this problem we can use the energy law, where at the moment the mechanical energy is started it is totally potential, and at the lowest point it is totally kinetic, we can suppose two possibilities, that the friction is zero and therefore by equalizing the energy we set the velocity at the lowest point.
Another case is if the friction is different from zero and in this case the variation of the energy is equal to the work of the friction force, in value it will be lower than in the calculations.
b) the calluses that he would use are to hinder the worker's friction force and energy
W = Em_{f} -Em₀
N d = ½ m v² - m g (y₂-y₁)
y₂-y₁ = 35 -10 = 25m
c) if there is no friction, the physical principle is the conservation of mechanical energy
If there is friction, the principle is that the non-conservative work is equal to the variation of the energy
The cloud of interstellar dust and gas that forms a star is known as a nebula. With an average surface temperature of about 737K, venus is the hottest planet. Hope this helps, and sorry your question didn't get answered in time.
Answer:
a) 43.20V
b) 2.71W/s
c) 40.25s
d) 7.77Nm
Explanation:
(a) The emf of a rotating coil with N turns is given by:
N: turns
B: magnitude of the magnetic field
A: area
w: angular velocity
the emf max is given by:
(b) the maximum rate of change of the magnetic flux is given by:
(c) 
(d) The torque is given by:
Answer:
Explanation:
The sig figs are off in the answer (unless you use -9.81 for the acceleration due to gravity. My classes always use -9.8, which is 2 sig figs. But nevertheless, we can solve it!) Use the velocity formula:
where vf is the final velocity, v0 is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration due to gravity, and t is the time in seconds. Filling in, using the fact that both the velocities are negative since the ball is going down:
-24.5 = -12.1 +(-9.8)t or
-24.5 = -12.1 - 9.8t and
-12.4 = -9.8t and divide to get that
t = 1.27 sec
