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jolli1 [7]
2 years ago
10

What are the two reasons for a clear cut

Engineering
1 answer:
Inessa [10]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

to clear land for agriculture and settlement and to use or sell timber for lumber, paper products, or fuel.

You might be interested in
A plant has ten machines and currently operates two 8-hr shift per day, 5 days per week, 50 weeks per year. the ten machines pro
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

  83.6%

Explanation:

<h3>(a)</h3>

On its current schedule, the plant can theoretically produce ...

  (30 pc/h/machine)(10 machine)(8 h/shift)(2 shift/day)(5 day/wk)(50 wk/yr)

  = (30)(10)(8)(2)(5)(50) pc/yr = 1,200,000 pc/yr

__

<h3>(b)</h3>

On the proposed schedule, this production becomes ...

  (30 pc/mach)(10 mach)(8 h/sh)(3 sh/da)(6 da/wk)(51 wk/yr)

  = (30)(10)(8)(3)(6)(51) pc/yr = 2,203,200 pc/yr

The increase in capacity is ...

  (2,203,200/1,200,000 -1) × 100% = 83.6% . . . capacity increase

_____

<em>Additional comment</em>

The number of parts per shift did not change. Only the number of shifts per year changed. It went up by a factor of (3/2)(6/5)(51/50) = 1.836. Hence the 83.6% increase in capacity.

We have to assume that maintenance and repair are done as effectvely as before in the reduced down time that each machine has.

3 0
2 years ago
Consider a single crystal of nickel oriented such that a tensile stress is applied along a [001] direction. If slip occurs on a
Elena L [17]

Answer:

\mathbf{\tau_c =5.675 \ MPa}

Explanation:

Given that:

The direction of the applied tensile stress =[001]

direction of the slip plane = [\bar 101]

normal to the slip plane = [111]

Now, the first thing to do is to calculate the angle between the tensile stress and the slip by using the formula:

cos \lambda = \Big [\dfrac{d_1d_2+e_1e_2+f_1f_2}{\sqrt{(d_1^2+e_1^2+f_1^2)+(d_2^2+e_2^2+f_2^2) }} \Big]

where;

[d_1\ e_1 \ f_1] = directional indices for tensile stress

[d_2 \ e_2 \ f_2] = slip direction

replacing their values;

i.e d_1 = 0 ,e_1 = 0 f_1 =  1 & d_2 = -1 , e_2 = 0 , f_2 = 1

cos \lambda = \Big [\dfrac{(0\times -1)+(0\times 0) + (1\times 1) }{\sqrt{(0^2+0^2+1^2)+((-1)^2+0^2+1^2) }} \Big]

cos \ \lambda = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}

Also, to find the angle \phi between the stress [001] & normal slip plane [111]

Then;

cos \  \phi = \Big [\dfrac{d_1d_3+e_1e_3+f_1f_3}{\sqrt{(d_1^2+e_1^2+f_1^2)+(d_3^2+e_3^2+f_3^2) }} \Big]

replacing their values;

i.e d_1 = 0 ,e_1 = 0 f_1 =  1 & d_3 = 1 , e_3 = 1 , f_3 = 1

cos \  \phi= \Big [ \dfrac{ (0 \times 1)+(0 \times 1)+(1 \times 1)} {\sqrt {(0^2+0^2+1^2)+(1^2+1^2 +1^2)} } \Big]

cos \phi= \dfrac{1} {\sqrt{3} }

However, the critical resolved SS(shear stress) \mathbf{\tau_c} can be computed using the formula:

\tau_c = (\sigma )(cos  \phi )(cos \lambda)

where;

applied tensile stress \sigma = 13.9 MPa

∴

\tau_c =13.9\times (  \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} )( \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}})

\mathbf{\tau_c =5.675 \ MPa}

3 0
3 years ago
Can a 1½ " conduit, with a total area of 2.04 square inches, be filled with wires that total 0.93 square inches if the maximum f
Papessa [141]

Answer:

it is not possible to place the wires in the condui

Explanation:

given data

total area = 2.04 square inches

wires total area = 0.93 square inches

maximum fill conduit =  40%

to find out

Can it is possible place wire in conduit conduit

solution

we know maximum fill is 40%

so here first we get total area of conduit that will be

total area of conduit = 40% × 2.04

total area of conduit = 0.816 square inches

but this area is less than required area of wire that is 0.93 square inches

so we can say it is not possible to place the wires in the conduit

4 0
3 years ago
What is the mechanical advantage of a pulley with 3 support ropes?
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

The mechanical advantage is 3 to 1

Explanation:

A frictionless pulley with three support ropes carries equal tension on each of the ropes thus;

Tension in each pulley rope = T

Total tension in the 3 ropes = 3 × T = 3·T

Direction of the tension forces on each rope = Unidirectional

Total force provided by the 3 ropes = 3·T

Therefore, a force, T, applied at the end of the rope will result in a lifting force of 3·T

Hence, the mechanical advantage = 3·T to T which is presented as follows;

Mechanical \ advantage = \dfrac{3 \cdot T}{T}  = \dfrac{3}{1}

The mechanical advantage = 3 to 1.

5 0
3 years ago
Where do greywater pipes generally feed into?
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

c   Waste stack

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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