Answer:
Potential
Explanation:
The most accurate term is Electrostatic potential energy
It's named like this because the force between charges or electrons is called electrostatic force .
After one meter, 3.4% of the light is gone ... either soaked up in the fiber
material or escaped from it. So only (100 - 3.4) = 96.6% of the light
remains, to go on to the next meter.
After the second meter, 96.6% of what entered it emerges from it, and
that's 96.6% of 96.6% of the original signal that entered the beginning
of the fiber.
==> After 2 meters, the intensity has dwindled to (0.966)² of its original level.
It's that exponent of ' 2 ' that corresponds to the number of meters that the light
has traveled through.
==> After 'x' meters of fiber, the remaininglight intensity is (0.966) ^x-power
of its original value.
If you shine 1,500 lumens into the front of the fiber, then after 'x' meters of
cable, you'll have
<em>(1,500) · (0.966)^x</em>
lumens of light remaining.
=========================================
The genius engineers in the fiber design industry would not handle it this way.
When they look up the 'attenuation' of the cable in the fiber manufacturer's
catalog, it would say "15dB per 100 meters".
What does that mean ? Break it down: 15dB in 100 meters is <u>0.15dB per meter</u>.
Now, watch this:
Up at the top, the problem told us that the loss in 1 meter is 3.4% . We applied
super high mathematics to that and calculated that 96.6% remains, or 0.966.
Look at this ==> 10 log(0.966) = <em><u>-0.15</u> </em> <== loss per meter, in dB .
Armed with this information, the engineer ... calculating the loss in 'x' meters of
fiber cable, doesn't have to mess with raising numbers to powers. All he has to
do is say ...
-- 0.15 dB loss per meter
-- 'x' meters of cable
-- 0.15x dB of loss.
If 'x' happens to be, say, 72 meters, then the loss is (72) (0.15) = 10.8 dB .
and 10 ^ (-10.8/10) = 10 ^ -1.08 = 0.083 = <em>8.3%</em> <== <u>That's</u> how much light
he'll have left after 72 meters, and all he had to do was a simple multiplication.
Sorry. Didn't mean to ramble on. But I do stuff like this every day.
Answer:
Loudness of the second sound is more than the first one.
Explanation:
There are two sounds, the second sound is identical to first but the loudness of second is more than the first one.
As the frequency is same so the itch is same for both the sounds.
As the loudness depends on the amplitude of the sound so the loudness of the second sound is more than the first sound.
I think the answer would be C, because to me that's one that makes sense, I hope that I could help, Have a great Thursday!
To convert parametric to Cartesian systems, you need to find a way to get rid of the t's.
In this case, the t's are inside trigonometric functions, so we're going to use a very famous trig identity you should memorize:
If we plug sin(t) and cos(t) into that equation only x and y variables will be left!
BUT there's one thing. The given cos(t + pi/6) has nasty extra stuff in it. However, part a gives you a tip on how to relate x and y to a nice clean cos(t)
So if we do a little rearranging:
Now we can plug these into the famous trig identity!
Do a little bit of adjustments to get that final form asked for, and you'll be able to find those integers of a and b. ;)
