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3 years ago

The belief that scientific psychology should be studying only observable behaviors is known as __________.

Physics

2 answers:

Naddika [18.5K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The belief that scientific psychology should be studying only observable behaviors is known as <em>behaviorism</em>.

Explanation:

Behaviorism is a current of psychology that advocates the use of strictly experimental procedures to study observable behavior (behavior), considering the environment as a set of stimuli-responses. In other words, behaviorism focuses on the study of the common laws that determine human and animal behavior, focusing on observable behavior.

In this way, this theory is mainly concerned with the stimuli that affect the sensory organs of an organism, and with the responses that these stimuli provoke.

kifflom [539]3 years ago

4 0

BEHAVIOURISM holds the belief that scientific psychology should be studying only obserrvable behaviors. The underlying principle of behaviourism is that behavior is influenced by our interaction with the environment and has little to do with factors internal to us. From which follows the assumption that when we are born, our mind is a blank slate

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katen-ka-za [31]

a) Constant

b) Constant

Explanation:

We can answer this question by using the equivalent of Newton's second law of motion of rotational motion, which can be written as:

$\tau_{net} = I \alpha$ (1)

where

$\tau_{net}$ is the net torque acting on the object in rotation

I is the moment of inertia of the object

$\alpha$ is the angular acceleration

The angular acceleration is the rate of change of the angular velocity, so it can be written as

$\alpha = \frac{\Delta \omega}{\Delta t}$

where

$\Delta \omega$ is the change in angular velocity

$\Delta t$ is the time interval

So we can rewrite eq.(1) as

$\tau_{net}=I\frac{\Delta \omega}{\Delta t}$

In this problem, we are told that at a given instant, the object has an angular acceleration due to the presence of torques, so there is a non-zero change in angular velocity.

Then, additional torques are applied, so that the net torque suddenly equal to zero, so:

$\tau_{net}=0$

From the previous equation, this implies that

$\Delta \omega =0$

Which means that the angular velocity at that instant does not change anymore.

In this second case instead, all the torques are suddenly removed.

This also means that the net torque becomes zero as well:

$\tau_{net}=0$

Therefore, this means that

$\Delta \omega =0$

So also in this case, there is no change in angular velocity: this means that the angular velocity of the object will remain constant.

So cases (a) and (b) are basically the same situation, as the net torque is zero in both cases, so the object acts in the same way.

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