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Ghella [55]
3 years ago
6

um ima em forma de barra atravessa uma espira retangular, como mostra a imagem. Sabendo que esse e um caso em que o fluxo magnet

ico sobre a espira esta variando, descreva o que acontecera na espira enquanto o ima se movimenta

Physics
1 answer:
SashulF [63]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:De acuerdo con la ley de inducción electromagnética de Faraday, la tasa de cambio del flujo magnético vinculado con la bobina es directamente proporcional a la fem inducida en la bobina.

e = - d∅ / dt

Entonces, si el cambio de flujo es mayor, la fem inducida es mayor.

¡espero haber ayudado a tener un buen día! :)

Explanation:

 According to the Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, the rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the coil is directly proportional to the induced emf in the coil.

e = - d∅ / dt

So, if the flux change is more the induced emf is more.

i hope i helped have a good day! :)

You might be interested in
¿cual es la velocidad de un haz de electrones que marchan sin desviarse cuando pasan a traves de un campo magnetico perpendicula
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

La velocidad del haz de electrones es 1.78x10⁵ m/s. Este valor se obtuvo asumiendo que el campo magnético dado (3500007) estaba en tesla y que la fuerza venía dada en nN.

Explanation:

Podemos encontrar la velocidad del haz de electrones usando la Ley de Lorentz:

F = |q|vBsin(\theta)     (1)

En donde:

F: es la fuerza magnética = 100 nN

q: es el módulo de la carga del electron = 1.6x10⁻¹⁹ C

v: es la velocidad del haz de electrones =?

B: es el campo magnético = 3500007 T

θ: es el ángulo entre el vector velocidad y el campo magnético = 90°

Introduciendo los valores en la ecuación (1) y resolviendo para "v" tenemos:

v = \frac{F}{qBsin(\theta)} = \frac{100 \cdot 10^{-9} N}{1.6 \cdot 10^{-19} C*3500007 T*sin(90)} = 1.78 \cdot 10^{5} m/s            

Este valor se calculó asumiendo que el campo magnético está dado en tesla (no tiene unidades en el enunciado). De igual manera se asumió que la fuerza indicada viene dada en nN.

Entonces, la velocidad del haz de electrones es 1.78x10⁵ m/s.  

Espero que te sea de utilidad!                                        

7 0
3 years ago
Hans observed properties of four different waves and recorded observations about each one in his chart.
Andre45 [30]
D.<span>Wave 3 resulted from constructive interference, and Wave 4 resulted from destructive interference.

</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
One billiard ball is shot east at 2.2 m/s. A second, identical billiard ball is shot west at 0.80 m/s. The balls have a glancing
Leona [35]

Answer:

(a). The speed of the first ball after the collision is 1.95 m/s.

(b). The direction of the first ball after the collision is 44.16° due south of east.

Explanation:

Given that,

Velocity of one ball u₁= 2.2i m/s

Velocity of second ball u₂=- 0.80i m/s

Final velocity of the second ball v₂= 1.36j m/s

The mass of the identical balls are

m = m_{1}=m_{2}

(a). We need to calculate the speed of the first ball after the collision

Using law of conservation of momentum

m_{1}u_{1}+m_{2}u_{2}=m_{1}v_{1}+m_{2}v_{2}

Along X- axis

m_{1}u_{1}+m_{2}u_{2}=m_{1}v_{1}

v_{1}=u_{1}+u_{2}

Put the value into the formula

v_{1}=2.2i-0.80i

v_{1}=1.4i\ m/s

Along Y-axis

0=m_{1}v_{1}+m_{2}v_{2}

m_{1}v_{1}=-m_{2}v_{2}

v_{1}=-v_{2}

Put the value into the formula

v_{1}=-1.36j\ m/s

Then the final speed of the first ball

v_{1}=\sqrt{(1.4)^2+(1.36)^2}

v_{1}=1.95\ m/s

(b) We need to calculate the direction of the first ball after the collision

Using formula of direction

\tan\theta=\dfrac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}

\tan\theta=\dfrac{-1.36}{1.4}

\theta=\tan^{-1}\dfrac{-1.36}{1.4}

\theta=-44.16^{\circ}

Negative sign shows the direction of first ball .

Hence, (a). The speed of the first ball after the collision is 1.95 m/s.

(b). The direction of the first ball after the collision is 44.16° due south of east.

7 0
3 years ago
WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST! QUICK PLEASE HELP!!!
LenKa [72]

Answer:Weight is the result of gravity . The gravitational field strength of Earth is 10 N/kg (ten newtons per kilogram). This means an object with a mass of 1 kg would be attracted towards the centre of Earth by a force of 10 N. We feel forces like this as weight.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Now consider a wave which is paired with seven other waves into seven pairs. The two waves in each pairing are identical, except
kupik [55]

The pair BCEG will interfere constructively, while the pair ADF will interfere destructively.

Constructive and destructive interference:

For interference, the waves must be coherent.

Two coherent waves interfere constructively when the path difference is equal to an integral multiple of the wavelength.

That is the path difference must be mλ

where m = 0,1,2,3.... is an integer and λ is the wavelength

So pair BCEG interfere constructively

Two coherent waves interfere destructively when the path difference is equal to a half-integral multiple of the wavelength.

That is the path difference must be (m+1/2)λ

where m = 0,1,2,3....   is an integer and λ is the wavelength

Therefore, the interference is in the pair ADF which is interfere destructively.

Learn more about interference: brainly.com/question/1194044

#SPJ4

[NOTE: THE COMPLETE QUESTION IS:

Now consider a wave which is paired with seven other waves into seven pairs. The two waves in each pairing are identical, except that one of them is shifted relative to the other in the pair by the distance shown: A. -(1/2) ?B. 2?C. -5?D. (3/2)?E. 0F. (17/2)?G. (6/2)?Identify which of the seven pairs will interfere constructively and which will interfere destructively. Each letter represents a pair of waves. Enter the letters of the pairs that correspond to constructive interference in alphabetical order and the letters of the pairs that correspond to pairs that interfere destructively in alphabetical order separated by a comma. For example if pairs A, B and D interfere constructively and pairs C and F interfere destructively enter ABD,CF.]

4 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
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