Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

15

Given that the efficiency of heating your room is roughly 35%, what mass of natural gas is actually necessary to heat your room

from 12.7 to 25 degrees.

1 answer:

Mrac [35]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Mass of natural gas needed to heat the room is 350,000BTUs

Explanation:

The heating efficiency of a furnace is never 100% because not all energy is released and not all heat is available to heat the place. A lesser efficiency requires more consumption of fuel. Heating values are used for heating fuels in order to calculate the mass of fuel needed.

The heating value of natural gas is 1,000,000BTUs

Therefore the formular for calculating mass of natural gas needed= Heating value of natural gas×efficiency.

Mass=1,000,000×0.35

Mass=350,000BTUs

You might be interested in

An object of mass 700700 kg is released from rest 20002000 m above the ground and allowed to fall under the influence of gravity

qwelly [4]

Answer:

59.503987 seconds

Explanation:

b = Proportionality constant = 50 Ns/m

g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

m = Mass of object = 700 kg

We have the equation of velocity

$v(t)=\dfrac{mg}{b}+\left(V_0-\dfrac{mg}{b}\right)e^{\dfrac{bt}{m}}$

The equation of motion

$x(t)=\dfrac{mg}{b}+\dfrac{m}{b}\left(V_0-\dfrac{mg}{b}\right)(1-e^{\dfrac{bt}{m}})$

$x(t)=\dfrac{700\times 9.81}{50}+\dfrac{9.81}{50}\left(0-\dfrac{700\times 9.81}{50}\right)(1-e^{\dfrac{50t}{700}})$

when x(t)=2000

$2000=\dfrac{700\times 9.81}{50}+\dfrac{9.81}{50}\left(0-\dfrac{700\times 9.81}{50}\right)(1-e^{\dfrac{50t}{700}})\\\Rightarrow 2000\times \:50=\frac{700\times \:9.81}{50}\times \:50+\frac{9.81}{50}\left(0-\frac{700\times \:9.81}{50}\right)\left(1-e^{\frac{50t}{700}}\right)\times \:50\\\Rightarrow 6867-\frac{67365.27}{50}\left(1-e^{\frac{50t}{700}}\right)=100000\\\Rightarrow 50\left(-\frac{67365.27}{50}\left(1-e^{\frac{50t}{700}}\right)\right)=93133\times \:50\\\Rightarrow \frac{-67365.27\left(1-e^{\frac{50t}{700}}\right)}{-67365.27}=\frac{4656650}{-67365.27}\\\Rightarrow 1-e^{\frac{50t}{700}}=-69.12538\dots\\\Rightarrow -e^{\frac{50t}{700}}=-70.12538\dots\\\Rightarrow t=14\ln \left(70.12538\dots \right)\\\Rightarrow t=59.50398\ s$

The time taken is 59.503987 seconds

8 0

3 years ago

Which types of a magnet will have a bigger magnetic feild area?

raketka [301]

Answer:

The magnetic field of a magnet any magnet is stronger at the poles, so the poles have a bigger magnetic field which types: bar magnetics and etc.hope this helps

7 0

2 years ago

A large refrigerator (mass 80kg) sits at rest inside a house. The homeowner wants to move the refrigerator across the room, so s

Liono4ka [1.6K]

Answer:

400 N

Explanation:

By the law of friction,

$F=\mu R$

$F$ is the maximum frictional force, $\mu$ is the coefficient of friction and $R$ is the reaction on the refrigerator. On a horizontal surface, the reaction is equal to the weight of the refrigerator.

$R=mg$

$F=\mu mg$

While not moving, the fricition on the refrigerator is static friction. So, $\mu=0.65$

$F=0.65 \times80\times9.8=509.6 \text{ N}$

This is the maximum frictional force and is more than the applied horizontal force of 400 N. Frictional force cannot be more than the applied force, else it would actually pull the refrigerator backwards (a strange thing, if it were to happen). It is equal to the extent of the applied force because the applied force is not enough to overcome the maximum.

Hence the frictional force is 400 N.

PS: Note that we do not use the coefficient of kinetic friction because applied force could not overcome the static friction.

6 0

3 years ago

A 1300 kg steel beam is supported by two ropes. (Figure

Dmitriy789 [7]

Relative to the positive horizontal axis, rope 1 makes an angle of 90 + 20 = 110 degrees, while rope 2 makes an angle of 90 - 30 = 60 degrees.

By Newton's second law,

the net horizontal force acting on the beam is

$R_1 \cos(110^\circ) + R_2 \cos(60^\circ) = 0$

where $R_1,R_2$ are the magnitudes of the tensions in ropes 1 and 2, respectively;

the net vertical force acting on the beam is

$R_1 \sin(110^\circ) + R_2 \sin(60^\circ) - mg = 0$

where $m=1300\,\rm kg$ and $g=9.8\frac{\rm m}{\mathrm s^2}$ .

Eliminating $R_2$ , we have

$\sin(60^\circ) \bigg(R_1 \cos(110^\circ) + R_2 \cos(60^\circ)\bigg) - \cos(60^\circ) \bigg(R_1 \sin(110^\circ) + R_2 \sin(60^\circ)\bigg) = 0\sin(60^\circ) - mg\cos(60^\circ)$

$R_1 \bigg(\sin(60^\circ) \cos(110^\circ) - \cos(60^\circ) \sin(110^\circ)\bigg) = -\dfrac{mg}2$

$R_1 \sin(60^\circ - 110^\circ) = -\dfrac{mg}2$

$-R_1 \sin(50^\circ) = -\dfrac{mg}2$

$R_1 = \dfrac{mg}{2\sin(50^\circ)} \approx \boxed{8300\,\rm N}$

Solve for $R_2$ .

$\dfrac{mg\cos(110^\circ)}{2\sin(50^\circ)} + R_2 \cos(60^\circ) = 0$

$\dfrac{R_2}2 = -mg\cot(110^\circ)$

$R_2 = -2mg\cot(110^\circ) \approx \boxed{9300\,\rm N}$

8 0

1 year ago

· A hot, just-minted copper coin is placed in 101 g of water to cool. The water

Mariana [72]

Answer:

135g

Explanation:

6 0

3 years ago