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iogann1982 [59]
3 years ago
12

A negative charge is moving across a room from south to north. A magnetic field runs from east to west. In what direction is the

magnetic force on the moving negative charge?
A.
toward the east
B.
toward the west
C.
toward the floor
D.
toward the ceiling
Physics
2 answers:
erica [24]3 years ago
6 0
Here is your answer

C. towards the floor

REASON:

Using Fleming's Left hand rule we can determine the direction of force applied on a moving charged particle placed in a magnetic field.

The direction of current will be just opposite to the direction of electron(negative charge) because current moves from positive to negative terminal whereas electron moves from negative to positive terminal.

So, direction of current- North to South

Now applying Fleming's Left hand rule we get the direction of force in downward direction, i.e. towards the floor.

HOPE IT IS USEFUL
elixir [45]3 years ago
5 0

B toward the West but east would be positive

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2. A portion of the body receives 0.15 mGy from radiation with a quality factor Q = 6 and 0.22 mGy from radiation with Q = 10. (
DiKsa [7]

Answer with Explanation:

We are given that

D_1=0.15mGy

D_2=0.22mGy

Q_1=6

Q_2=10

a.We have to find the total dose

Total dose=D=D_1+D_2

Using the formula then, we get

D=0.15+0.22

D=0.37mGy

b.We have to find the total dose equivalent

Total dose equivalent=H=D_1Q_1+D_2Q_2

Using the formula

H=0.15(6)+0.22(10)

H=3.1mSv

7 0
3 years ago
A flywheel with a diameter of 1.42 m is rotating at an angular speed of 207 rev/min. (a) What is the angular speed of the flywhe
Archy [21]

Answer:

a. 21.68 rad/s b. 30.78 m/s c. 897 rev/min² d. 1085 revolutions

Explanation:

a. Its angular speed in radians per second  ω = angular speed in rev/min × 2π/60 = 207 rev/min × 2π/60 = 21.68 rad/s

b. The linear speed of a point on the flywheel is gotten from v = rω where r = radius of flywheel = 1.42 m

So, v = rω = 1.42 m × 21.68 rad/s = 30.78 m/s

c. Using α = (ω₁ - ω)/t where α = angular acceleration of flywheel, ω = initial angular speed of wheel in rev/min = 21.68 rad/s = 207 rev/min, ω₁ = final angular speed of wheel in rev/min = 1410 rev/min = 147.65 rad/s, t = time in minutes = 80.5/60 min = 1.342 min

α = (ω₁ - ω)/t

  = (1410 - 207)/(80.5/60)

  = 60(1410 - 207)/80.5

  = 60(1203)80.5

  = 896.65 rev/min² ≅ 897 rev/min²

d. Using θ = ωt + 1/2αt²

where θ = number of revolutions of flywheel. Substituting the values of the variables from above, ω = 207 rev/min, α = 896.65 rev/min² and  t = 80.5/60 min = 1.342 min

θ = ωt + 1/2αt²

  = 207 × 1.342 + 1/2 × 896.65 × 1.342²

  = 277.725 + 807.417

  = 1085.14 revolutions ≅ 1085 revolutions

5 0
3 years ago
A nautical mile is 6076 feet, and 1 knot is a unit of speed equal to 1 nautical mile/hour. How fast is a boat going 8 knots goin
mezya [45]

Answer:

The speed of the boat is equal to 13.50 ft/s.

Explanation:

given,

1  nautical mile = 6076 ft

1 knot = 1 nautical mile /hour

1 knot = 6076 ft/hr

speed of boat = 8 knots

 8 knots = 8 nautical mile /hour

               =8 \times \dfrac{6076\ ft}{1\nautical\ mile}\times \dfrac{1\ hour}{60\times 60\ s}

               = 13.50 ft/s

The speed of the boat is equal to 13.50 ft/s.

5 0
3 years ago
An object slides down a frictionless inclined plane. At the bottom, it has a speed of 9.80 m/s. What is the vertical height of t
Papessa [141]

The vertical height of the given plane is 4.9 m.

The given parameters:

  • <em>speed of the object at the bottom of the ramp, v = 9.8 m/s</em>

The vertical height of the plane is calculated by applying principle of conservation of mechanical energy as follows;

P.E = K.E\\\\mgh = \frac{1}{2} mv^2\\\\h = \frac{v^2}{2g} \\\\h = \frac{9.8 \times 9.8}{2 \times 9.8} \\\\h = 4.9 \ m

Thus, the vertical height of the given plane is 4.9 m.

Learn more about conservation of mechanical energy here: brainly.com/question/332163

7 0
2 years ago
A beam of unpolarized light with intensity I0 falls first upon a polarizer with transmission axis θTA,1 then upon a second polar
loris [4]

Answer:

The intensity I₂ of the light beam emerging from the second polarizer is zero.

Explanation:

Given:

Intensity of first polarizer = Io/2

For the second polarizer, the intensity is equal:

I_{2} =\frac{I_{o} }{2} (cos\theta )^{2} =\frac{I_{o} }{2} (cos90)^{2} =0

5 0
3 years ago
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