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adoni [48]
3 years ago
11

Someone answer asapp

Physics
2 answers:
garik1379 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Potential energy is highest at the top of the loop, and kinetic energy is highest at the bottom of the loop.

ohaa [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

<h2>See below</h2>

Explanation:

Let us first give a formal definition of the terms.

1. Potential Energy: Energy that has the ability to do work, but is stationary at the moment.

2. Kinetic Energy: The energy of an object in motion.

Now that we know the definitions of these terms, we can answer the question. Remember that the area of greatest potential energy is that spot where there is potential to do work, but that energy is not causing any movement at the current time. The spot where there is the greatest amount of potential energy in the image is at the top of the roller coaster. There is little movement at this juncture, but there is plenty of potential energy. As the coaster goes down, the kinetic energy goes up, since the coaster is now in motion. The spot where there is the greatest amount of kinetic energy is near the bottom of the roller coaster.

<em>Hope this helps</em>

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The brick wall (of thermal conductivity 1.12 W/m · ◦ C) of a building has dimensions of 2.8 m by 5 m and is 8 cm thick. How much
hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

If H be the heat flowing in time t through an area of A having thickness d

H = k A x ( θ₂ - θ₁ ) t / d  , k is thermal conductivity , ( θ₂ - θ₁ ) is temperature difference of walls

putting the given values

= (1.12 x 2.8x 5 x 9 x 16.7 x 60 x 60) / .08

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5 0
2 years ago
This is physics 11th grade and a homework question I don’t understand how to do this or what the question is asking me
Alexxx [7]

a) Frequency is the number of complete oscillations per second. Looking at the graph, there are 9 complete oscillations in 5 seconds. Thus,

Frequency = 9/5 = 1.8 oscillations per second

Frequency = 1.8 Hz

Period = 1/frequency = 1/1.8

Period = 0.056 s

b) When we differenctiate displacement with respect to time, the result is velocity.

Recall, period = 1/f = 5/9 cycles

1/4 cycle behind = 1/4 x 5/9 = 5/36

It is delayed with 5/36 sec with respect to displacement.

5/36 sec = 0.139 sec

Acceleration = first derivative of velocity = second derivative of displacement = 1/4 cycle behind velocity = 1/2 cycle behind displacement =

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= 5/18 = 0.2777 secs delayed with respect to displacement

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c) The formula for calculating the period of an ideal pendulum anywhere is

T = 2π√length/local gravity). We would calculate the local gravity.

From the information given,

length = 0.2

T = P = 5/9

Thus,

5/9 = 2π√0.2/local gravity)

(5/9)/2π = √0.2/local gravity

Square both sides. It becomes

[(5/9)/2π]^2 = 0.2/local gravity

local gravity = 0.2/[(5/9)/2π]^2

local gravity = 25.56 m/s^2

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acceleration due to gravity = 25.56 m/s^2

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number of g forces = 25.56/9.8

number of g forces = 2.61

6 0
1 year ago
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Softa [21]
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2 years ago
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lesya692 [45]
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<span>buena suerte mi amigo</span>
3 0
3 years ago
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Zina [86]
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The magnitude is found with the Pythagorean theorem
||C|| = √(-8.3² + 4.7²) = 9.538
3 0
2 years ago
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