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kvasek [131]
3 years ago
15

The mass fractions of total ferrite and total cementite in an iron–carbon alloy are 0.91 and 0.09, respectively. Is this a hypoe

utectoid or hypereutectoid alloy? Why?
Engineering
1 answer:
WINSTONCH [101]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

hypoeutectoid

Explanation:

ferrite:  pure form of iron

cementite: It is iron carbide with 93.3% iron and 6.67% carbon

hypoeutectoid: Eutectoid steel with carbon fraction less than 0.8%

hypereutectoid: Eutectoid Steel with carbon content more than 0.8%

For the mentioned iron-carbide alloy,

% of carbon in iron-carbide alloy= percentage of cementite × percentage of carbon in cementite

% of carbon in iron-carbide alloy= 0.09× 0.0667

                                                     = 0.6%

so the alloy is hypoeutectoid

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What is stress corrosion cracking?
aksik [14]

Answer:

The growth of crack formation in a corrosive environment.

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
The fracture strength of glass may be increased by etching away a thin surface layer. It is believed that the etching may alter
Korvikt [17]

Answer:

the ratio of the etched to the original crack tip radius is 30.24

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

we determine the initial fracture stress using the following expression;

(σf)₁ = 2(σ₀)₁ [ α₁/(p_t)₁ ]^{1/2 ----- let this be equation 1

where; (σ₀)₁ is the initial fracture strength

(p_t)₁ is the original crack tip radius

α₁ is the original crack length.

first, we determine the final crack length;

α₂ = α₁ - 16% of α₁

α₂ = α₁ - ( 0.16 × α₁)

α₂ = α₁ - 0.16α₁

α₂ = 0.84α₁

next, we calculate the final fracture stress;

the fracture strength is increased by a factor of 6;

(σ₀)₂ = 6( σ₀ )₁

Now, expression for the final fracture stress

(σf)₂ = 2(σ₀)₂ [ α₂/(p_t)₂ ]^{1/2 ------- let this be equation 2

where (p_t)₂ is the etched crack tip radius

value of fracture stress of glass is constant

Now, we substitute 2(σ₀)₁ [ α₁/(p_t)₁ ]^{1/2 from equation for (σf)₂  in equation 2.

0.84α₁ for α₂.

6( σ₀ )₁ for (σ₀)₂.

∴

2(σ₀)₁ [ α₁/(p_t)₁ ]^{1/2  = 2(6( σ₀ )₁) [ 0.84α₁/(p_t)₂ ]^{1/2  

divide both sides by 2(σ₀)₁

[ α₁/(p_t)₁ ]^{1/2  =  6 [ 0.84α₁/(p_t)₂ ]^{1/2

[ 1/(p_t)₁ ]^{1/2  =  6 [ 0.84/(p_t)₂ ]^{1/2

[ 1/(p_t)₁ ]  =  36 [ 0.84/(p_t)₂ ]

1 / (p_t)₁ = 30.24 / (p_t)₂

(p_t)₂ = 30.24(p_t)₁

(p_t)₂/(p_t)₁ = 30.24

Therefore, the ratio of the etched to the original crack tip radius is 30.24

6 0
3 years ago
Question 9.1 from the textbook. Consider the following workload: Process Burst Time Priority Arrival Time P1 50 4 0 P2 20 1 20 P
Marizza181 [45]

Answer:

Explanation:

The schedule using shortest remaining time, non-preemptive priority and round Robin with quantum number 30 is shown in the attached file, please kindly go through it to access the answer.

5 0
3 years ago
The following data were obtained when a cold-worked metal was annealed. (a) Estimate the recovery, recrystallization, and grain
Oduvanchick [21]
Sorrry needdddd pointssssss
7 0
2 years ago
A 50 mm diameter shaft is subjected to a static axial load of 160 kN. If the yield stress of the material is 350 MPa, the ultima
zvonat [6]

In order to develop this problem it is necessary to take into account the concepts related to fatigue and compression effort and Goodman equation, i.e, an equation that can be used to quantify the interaction of mean and alternating stresses on the fatigue life of a materia.

With the given data we can proceed to calculate the compression stress:

\sigma_c = \frac{P}{A}

\sigma_c = \frac{160*10^3}{\pi/4*0.05^2}

\sigma_c = 81.5MPa

Through Goodman's equations the combined effort by fatigue and compression is expressed as:

\frac{\sigma_a}{S_e}+\frac{\sigma_c}{\sigma_u}=\frac{1}{Fs}

Where,

\sigma_a=Fatigue limit for comined alternating and mean stress

S_e =Fatigue Limit

\sigma_c=Mean stress (due to static load)

\sigma_u = Ultimate tensile stress

Fs =Security Factor

We can replace the values and assume a security factor of 1, then

\frac{\sigma_a}{320}+\frac{81.5}{400}=\frac{1}{1}

Re-arrenge for \sigma_a

\sigma_a = 254.8Mpa

We know that the stress is representing as,

\sigma_a = \frac{M_c}{I}

Then,

Where M_c=Max Moment

I= Intertia

The inertia for this object is

I=\frac{\pi d^4}{64}

Then replacing and re-arrenge for M_c

M_c = \frac{\sigma_a*\pi*d^3}{32}

M_c = \frac{260.9*10^6*\pi*0.05^3}{32}

M_c = 3201.7N.m

Thereforethe moment that can be applied to this shaft so that fatigue does not occur is 3.2kNm

5 0
3 years ago
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