Answer:
Cp= 0.44 J/g.C
This is heat capacity of metal.
Explanation:
From energy conservation
Heat lost by metal = Heat gain by water +Heat gain by calorimeter
Because here temperature of metal is high that is why it loose the heat.The temperature of water and calorimeter is low that is why they gain the heat.
final temperature is T= 30.5 C
We know that sensible heat transfer given as
Q= m Cp ΔT
m=Mass
Cp=Specific heat capacity
ΔT=Temperature difference
By putting the values
55 x Cp ( 99.5 - 30.5) = 40 x 4.184 ( 30.5- 21 ) + 10 x ( 30.5 - 21)
Cp ( 99 .5- 30.5) = 30.65
Cp= 0.44 J/g.C
This is heat capacity of metal.
Answer: First, we determine the circumference of the Mars by the equation below.
C = 2πr
Substituting the known values,
C = 2(π)(3,397 km) = 6794π km
To determine the tangential speed, we divide the circumference calculated above by the time it takes for Mars to complete one rotation and that is,
tangential speed = 6794π km / 24.6 hours = 867.64 km/h
Answers are:
(1) KE = 1 kg m^2/s^2
(2) KE = 2 kg m^2/s^2
(3) KE = 3 kg m^2/s^2
(4) KE = 4 kg m^2/s^2
Explanation:
(1) Given mass = 0.125 kg
speed = 4 m/s
Since Kinetic energy = (1/2)*m*(v^2)
Plug in the values:
Hence:
KE = (1/2) * 0.125 * (16)
KE = 1 kg m^2/s^2
(2) Given mass = 0.250 kg
speed = 4 m/s
Since Kinetic energy = (1/2)*m*(v^2)
Plug in the values:
Hence:
KE = (1/2) * 0.250 * (16)
KE = 2 kg m^2/s^2
(3) Given mass = 0.375 kg
speed = 4 m/s
Since Kinetic energy = (1/2)*m*(v^2)
Plug in the values:
Hence:
KE = (1/2) * 0.375 * (16)
KE = 3 kg m^2/s^2
(4) Given mass = 0.500 kg
speed = 4 m/s
Since Kinetic energy = (1/2)*m*(v^2)
Plug in the values:
Hence:
KE = (1/2) * 0.5 * (16)
KE = 4 kg m^2/s^2
The statement about pointwise convergence follows because C is a complete metric space. If fn → f uniformly on S, then |fn(z) − fm(z)| ≤ |fn(z) − f(z)| + |f(z) − fm(z)|, hence {fn} is uniformly Cauchy. Conversely, if {fn} is uniformly Cauchy, it is pointwise Cauchy and therefore converges pointwise to a limit function f. If |fn(z)−fm(z)| ≤ ε for all n,m ≥ N and all z ∈ S, let m → ∞ to show that |fn(z)−f(z)|≤εforn≥N andallz∈S. Thusfn →f uniformlyonS.
2. This is immediate from (2.2.7).
3. We have f′(x) = (2/x3)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, and f′(0) = limh→0(1/h)e−1/h2 = 0. Since f(n)(x) is of the form pn(1/x)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, where pn is a polynomial, an induction argument shows that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n. If g is analytic on D(0,r) and g = f on (−r,r), then by (2.2.16), g(z) =
