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PIT_PIT [208]
3 years ago
5

When friction is reduced

Physics
1 answer:
dsp733 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Less heat is created

Explanation:

More Friction equals to more heat

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Series circuits are characterized by the fact that there is a single pathway by which charge can travel. True or false?
Ulleksa [173]
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Zane
6 0
4 years ago
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A particle is moving with (SHM) of period 8.0s and amplitude5.0m
nadezda [96]

Answer:

velocity(x)=15\,\frac{\pi}{4}\,cos(\frac{\pi}{4}x)

Max speed = \frac{15\, \pi}{4} \,\, \frac{m}{s}

Max acceleration = \frac{15\,\pi^2}{16} \,\,\frac{m}{s^2}

Explanation:

Given the description of period and amplitude, the SHM could be described by:

f(x)=5\,sin(\frac{\pi}{4}x)

and its angular velocity can be calculated doing the derivative:

f(x)=5\, \,sin(\frac{\pi}{4}x)\\f'(x)=5\,\frac{\pi}{4}\,cos(\frac{\pi}{4}x)

And therefore, the tangential velocity is calculated by multiplying this expression times the radius of the movement (3 m):

velocity(x)=15\,\frac{\pi}{4}\,cos(\frac{\pi}{4}x)  and is given in m/s.

Then the maximum speed is obtained when the cosine function becomes "1", and that gives:

Max speed = \frac{15\, \pi}{4} \,\, \frac{m}{s}

The acceleration is found from the derivative of the velocity expression, and therefore given by:

acceleraton(x)=-15\,\frac{\pi^2}{16}\,sin(\frac{\pi}{4}x)

and the maximum of the function will be obtained when the sine expression becomes "-1", which will render:

Max acceleration = \frac{15\,\pi^2}{16} \,\,\frac{m}{s^2}

6 0
3 years ago
In a certain region of space, the electric potential is V(x,y,z)=Axy-Bx^2+Cy , where A,B , and C are positive constants.a) Calcu
laiz [17]

Answer:

a)  Eₓ = - A y + 2B x , b)  Ey = -Ax –C , c) Ez = 0 , d) The correct answer is 3

Explanation:

The electric field and the electric power are related

                    E = - dV / ds

a) Let's find the electric field on the x axis

                  Eₓ = - dV / dx

                  dV / dx = A y - B 2x

                  Eₓ = - A y + 2B x

b) calculate the electric field on the y-axis

                Ey = - dV / dy

                dV / dy = A x + C

                Ey = -Ax –C

c) the electric field on the z axis

              dv / dz = 0

              Ez = 0

.d) at which point the electric field is zero

Since the electric field is a vector quantity all components must be zero

X axis

              0 = = - A y + 2B x

              y = 2B / A x

Axis y

             0 = -Ax –C

              .x = -C / A

We substitute this value in the previous equation

             .y = 2B / A (-C / A)

             .y = 2 B C / A2

The correct answer is 3

6 0
4 years ago
A glass flask whose volume is 1000 cm^3 at a temperature of 1.00°C is completely filled with mercury at the same temperature. W
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

the coefficient of volume expansion of the glass is \mathbf{  ( \beta_{glass} )= 1.333 *10^{-5} / K}

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial volume of the glass flask = 1000 cm³ = 10⁻³ m³

temperature of the glass flask and mercury= 1.00° C

After heat is applied ; the final temperature = 52.00° C

Temperature change ΔT = 52.00° C - 1.00° C = 51.00° C

Volume of the mercury overflow = 8.50 cm^3 = 8.50 ×  10⁻⁶ m³

the coefficient of volume expansion of mercury is 1.80 × 10⁻⁴ / K

The increase in the volume of the mercury =  10⁻³ m³ ×  51.00 × 1.80 × 10⁻⁴

The increase in the volume of the mercury = 9.18*10^{-6} \ m^3

Increase in volume of the glass =  10⁻³ × 51.00 × \beta _{glass}

Now; the mercury overflow = Increase in volume of the mercury - increase in the volume of the flask

the mercury overflow = (9.18*10^{-6}  -  51.00* \beta_{glass}*10^{-3})\ m^3

8.50*10^{-6} = (9.18*10^{-6}  -51.00* \beta_{glass}* 10^{-3} )\ m^3

8.50*10^{-6} - 9.18*10^{-6} = ( -51.00* \beta_{glass}* 10^{-3} )\ m^3

-6.8*10^{-7} =  ( -51.00* \beta_{glass}* 10^{-3} )\ m^3

6.8*10^{-7} =  ( 51.00* \beta_{glass}* 10^{-3} )\ m^3

\dfrac{6.8*10^{-7}}{51.00 * 10^{-3}}=  ( \beta_{glass} )

\mathbf{  ( \beta_{glass} )= 1.333 *10^{-5} / K}

Thus; the coefficient of volume expansion of the glass is \mathbf{  ( \beta_{glass} )= 1.333 *10^{-5} / K}

5 0
3 years ago
On a roller coaster, describe the kinetic and potential energy of the car at the top of the first hill, the bottom of the first
vaieri [72.5K]
The total amount of energy stays the same, but throughout the ride, the kinetic energy and the potential energy change, still adding up to the same number. At the top of the ride it has potential energy, and as it goes down the potential energy decreases and the kinetic energy increases. When it’s at the bottom of the first drop it has maxed out its kinetic energy, and minimized its potential energy. Friction slows down the car, and pushes on the cart with a force that is equal and opposite to the force being exerted in the track. The reason the track keeps going is because though it exerts and equal and opposite force the momentum of the objects is different, allowing the car to continue moving, however friction will slow it down until eventually it comes to a stop.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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