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tatyana61 [14]
3 years ago
12

If you increase the length ? of a pendulum by a factor of 9, how will the period t increase?

Physics
2 answers:
NeX [460]3 years ago
4 0
T = 2π√(L/g)

T⇒ √L

If L goes up by a factor of 9, T goes up by a factor of √9.
garik1379 [7]3 years ago
3 0
T = 2 * pie √(L/g)

so, if length is increased by 9

then time period is increased by √9 = 3

hope it helped :)
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The work done by the elephant to lift one log is the force multiplied by the height at which the log has been lifted:
W=Fh=250 N \cdot 5 m=1250 J
And so, the total work done to lift the 7 logs is 7 times the work done to lift each log:
W_t = 7 W=7 \cdot 1250 N=8750 J
5 0
3 years ago
A hot-water bottle contains 787 g of water at 75∘C. If the liquid water cools to body temperature (37 ∘C), how many kilojoules o
IgorC [24]

Answer:

Q = 787 gr * 1 \frac{cal}{gr C} *(37-75)C = -29906 cal

So then the answer for this case would be 29906 cal but we need to convert this into KJ and we know that 1 cal = 4.184 J and if we convert we got:

29906 cal *\frac{4.184 J}{1 cal}* \frac{1KJ}{1000 J}= 125.127 KJ

Explanation:

For this case we know the mass of the water given :

m = 787 gr

And we know that the initial temperature for this water is T_i =75 C.

We want to cool this water to the human body temperature T_f = 37 C

Since the temperatures given are not near to 0C (fusion point) or 100C (the boling point) we don't need to use latent heat, then the only heat involved for this case is the sensible heat given by:

Q= m c_p \Delta T

Where c_p represent the specific heat for the water and this value from tables we know that c_p =1 \frac{cal}{gr C} for the water.

So then we have everything in order to replace into the formula of sensible heat and we got:

Q = 787 gr * 1 \frac{cal}{gr C} *(37-75)C = -29906 cal

So then the answer for this case would be 29906 cal but we need to convert this into KJ and we know that 1 cal = 4.184 J and if we convert we got:

29906 cal *\frac{4.184 J}{1 cal}* \frac{1KJ}{1000 J}= 125.127 KJ

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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Andrej [43]

Answer:

7 m/s

Explanation:

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K1 +U1=K2+U2

That math speak for, initial kinetic energy plus initial potential energy equals final kinetic energy plus final potential energy.

The initial PE (potential energy) is 0 because it hasn't been raised in the air yet. The final KE (kinetic energy) is 0 because it isn't moving. This gives the following:

KE1= \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}}

PE2=mgh

K1=U2

\frac{1}{2} mv^{2} =mgh

Solve for v

v=\sqrt{2gh}

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5 0
3 years ago
A wedge with a mechanical advantage of 0.78 is used to raise a house corner from its foundation. If the output force is 7500 N,
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

5850

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MA = Force out/ Force in

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2 years ago
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Answer:

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when t = 3 s

acceleration = - 1.5 sin 1.5

= - 1.496 ms⁻²

v = 3 cos.5t

b )  dx/dt = 3 cos 0.5 t

dx = 3 cos 0.5 t dt

integrating on both sides

x = 3 sin .5t / .5

x = 6 sin0.5t

At t = 2 s

x = 6 sin 1

x = 5.05 m

4 0
3 years ago
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