Answer:
electric field E = (1 /3 e₀) ρ r
Explanation:
For the application of the law of Gauss we must build a surface with a simple symmetry, in this case we build a spherical surface within the charged sphere and analyze the amount of charge by this surface.
The charge within our surface is
ρ = Q / V
Q ’= ρ V
'
The volume of the sphere is V = 4/3 π r³
Q ’= ρ 4/3 π r³
The symmetry of the sphere gives us which field is perpendicular to the surface, so the integral is reduced to the value of the electric field by the area
I E da = Q ’/ ε₀
E A = E 4 πi r² = Q ’/ ε₀
E = (1/4 π ε₀) Q ’/ r²
Now you relate the fraction of load Q ’with the total load, for this we use that the density is constant
R = Q ’/ V’ = Q / V
How you want the solution depending on the density (ρ) and the inner radius (r)
Q ’= R V’
Q ’= ρ 4/3 π r³
E = (1 /4π ε₀) (1 /r²) ρ 4/3 π r³
E = (1 /3 e₀) ρ r
Answer:
No, either driver can not hear a different frequency from the other car's horn than they would if the cars were stationary.
Explanation:
Either driver hear a different frequency from the other car's horn than they would if the cars were stationary if two cars are traveling in the same direction and with the same speed along a straight highway because neither driver experiences a Doppler shift
Complete question:
At a particular instant, an electron is located at point (P) in a region of space with a uniform magnetic field that is directed vertically and has a magnitude of 3.47 mT. The electron's velocity at that instant is purely horizontal with a magnitude of 2×10⁵ m/s then how long will it take for the particle to pass through point (P) again? Give your answer in nanoseconds.
[<em>Assume that this experiment takes place in deep space so that the effect of gravity is negligible.</em>]
Answer:
The time it will take the particle to pass through point (P) again is 1.639 ns.
Explanation:
F = qvB
Also;
solving this two equations together;
where;
m is the mass of electron = 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg
q is the charge of electron = 1.602 x 10⁻¹⁹ C
B is the strength of the magnetic field = 3.47 x 10⁻³ T
substitute these values and solve for t
Therefore, the time it will take the particle to pass through point (P) again is 1.639 ns.
I don’t see any picture sorry I wish I can help tho
Answer:
This is due to impulse
Explanation:
Impulse equal to mΔv and FΔt
You can set these equal as mΔv = FΔt
When a boxer punches a tissue, it is like punching a cushion or a pillow. The time that the hit takes is much grater than if they were to hit something solid. In addition, the change in velocity of the boxer's arm would be much greater when they hit a punching bag. In this equation, the greater the time, the less force that is needed.
