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3 years ago

This is a question on my science hw.

Physics

2 answers:

TEA [102]3 years ago

6 0

I think it is better to prove it,

when you put two things in the same altitude , only when they have the same speed, can fall on the grownd in the same time,

so, we can prove it :

1)we know that the acceleration of the earf (gravity or g)is the same for every thing on it :

we know: V=at +V1 and here it is

V=gt+V1

so Va=Vb because gta +V1a=gtb + V1b

and V1 is 0 =>gta=gtb =>ta=tb

(a and b are names of two assumed things)

pogonyaev3 years ago

5 0

gravity is like a gas that sticks us to ground no matter what object is falling they were both fall down at the same time because it doesn't matter the mass it just matters like the curve around them like if the curve and like their sides

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A circular loop of wire with radius 2.00 cm and resistance 0.600 Ω is in a region of a spatially uniform magnetic field B⃗ that

Anika [276]

Answer:

Incomplete questions

Let assume we are asked to find

Calculate the induced emf in the coil at any time, let say t=2

And induced current

Explanation:

Flux is given as

Φ=NAB

Where

N is number of turn, N=1

A=area=πr²

Since r=2cm=0.02

A=π(0.02)²=0.001257m²

B=magnetic field

B(t)=Bo•e−t/τ,

Where Bo=3T

τ=0.5s

B(t)=3e(−t/0.5)

B(t)=3exp(-2t)

Therefore

Φ=NAB

Φ=0.001257×3•exp(-2t)

Φ=0.00377exp(-2t)

Now,

Induce emf is given as

E= - dΦ/dt

E= - 0.00377×-2 exp(-2t)

E=0.00754exp(-2t)

At t=2

E=0.00754exp(-4)

E=0.000138V

E=0.138mV

b. Induce current

From ohms laws

V=iR

Given that R=0.6Ω

i=V/R

i=0.000138/0.6

i=0.00023A

i=0.23mA

5 0

3 years ago

An object has an angular velocity. It also has an angular acceleration due to torques that are present. Therefore, the angular v

shusha [124]

Answer:

α = 0 , w = w₀

Explanation:

Torque is related to angular acceleration by Newton's second law for rotational motion.

τ = I α

Where τ is the torque, I the moment of inertia and α the angular acceleration.

If we apply an external torque for the sum of all torques to be zero, the angular acceleration must fall to zero

α = 0

Since the acceleration is zero, the angular velocity you have at that time is constantly killed.

w = w₀ + α t

w = w₀ + 0

8 0

3 years ago

A box of mass m1 rests on a smooth, horizontal floor next to a box of mass m2. Suppose the force of 20.0 N pushes on two boxes o

meriva

Answer:

Explanation:

Given

acceleration of system a =1.2 m/s^2

Normal Force N=4.45 N

Force exerted F=20 N

Thus

$F=(m_1+m_2)a$

$\frac{20}{1.2}=m_1+m_2$

$16.67=m_1+m_2$ -------1

Normal reaction $N=m_2a$

$4.45=m_2\times 1.2$

$m_2=3.70 kg$

therefore $m_1=16.67-3.70$

$m_1=12.96 kg$

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

2. A 3.0 kg block rests on a level surface. The coefficient of static friction is µs = 0.50, and the coefficient of kinetic fric

yan [13]

Friction force is equal to the applied force F until the block starts moving. Hence, it will increase until the maximum value of 3.0*10*0.50=150 N.

While it's moving, the friction will be 3.0*10*0.2 = 60 N, constant. The rest of the applied force will accelerate the block.

6 0

3 years ago

Determine the magnitude of the resultant force and its direction using both the parallelogram and Cartesian vector notation meth

Alika [10]

Answer:

F = 1494.52 N, θ = 44º

Explanation:

For the sum of vectors by the parallelogram method, see attached, the vectors are drawn, the parallelogram is completed and a vector is drawn from the origin of the two vectors to the end point of the rectangle, this is the resulting vector.

The attachment shows this roughly.

For the Cartesian coordinate method, each vector is decomposed into its components, they are added algebraically and then the resulting vector is composed in the form of a module and angles

we use trigonometry to decompose the vectors.

The coordinate system can be seen in the attachment

sin θ = y / R

cos θ = x / R

y = R sin θ

x = R cos θ

Vector 1

module F₁ and angle β₁ = 50

sin 50 = $\frac{F_{1y} }{F_1}$

cos 50 = $\frac{F_{1x} }{F_1}$

$F_{1y}$ = F₁ sin 50

F₁ₓ = F₁ cos 50

F_{1y} = 600 sin 50 = 459.63 N

F₁ₓ = 600 cos 50 = 385.67 N

Vector 2

modulus F₂ = 900N, angle β₂ = 40

F_{2y} = 900 sin 40 = 578.51 N

F₂ₓ = 900 cos 40 = 689.44 N

we find the resultant of each component

F_{y} =F_{1y} + F_{2y}

F_{y} = 459.63 + 578.51

F_{y} = 1038.14 N

Fₓ = F₁ₓ + F₂ₓ

Fₓ = 385.67 + 689.44

Fₓ = 1075.11 N

We use the Pythagorean theorem to find the modulus of the resultant

F = Fₓ² + $F_{y}^2$

F = √(1075.11² + 1038.14²)

F = 1494.52 N

we use trigonometry for the angle

tan θ = F_y / Fₓ

θ = tan⁻¹ (F_y / Fₓ)

θ = tan⁻¹ (1038.14 / 1075.11)

θ = 44º

8 0

2 years ago