So if the formula for work is force times displacement times cosine(theta), you'd plug in the numbers
100x5 (since there's no angle in the problem, cosine(theta) isn't used
100x5 = 500
So the answer would be B.
Hope that helps!
Answer:
D. Metallic atoms have valence shells that are mostly empty, which
means these atoms are more likely to give up electrons and allow
them to move freely.
Explanation:
Metals usually contain very few electrons in their valence shells hence they easily give up these few valence electrons to yield metal cations.
In the metallic bond, metal cations are held together by electrostatic attraction between the metal ions and a sea of mobile electrons.
Since metals give up their electrons easily, it is very easy for them to participate in metallic bonding. They give up their electrons easily because their valence shells are mostly empty, metal valence shells usually contain only a few electrons.
Answer:
Explanation:
Initial kinetic energy of M = 1/2 M vi²
let final velocity be vf
v² = u² + 2a s
vf² = vi² + 2 (F / M) x D
Kinetic energy
= 1/2 Mvf²
= 1/2 M ( vi² + 2 (F / M) x D
1/2 M vi² + FD
Ratio with initial value
1/2 M vi² + FD) / 1/2 M vi²
RK = 1 + FD / 2 M vi²
Answer:
μ = 0.692
Explanation:
In order to solve this problem, we must make a free body diagram and include the respective forces acting on the body. Similarly, deduce the respective equations according to the conditions of the problem and the directions of the forces.
Attached is an image with the respective forces:
A summation of forces on the Y-axis is performed equal to zero, in order to determine the normal force N. this summation is equal to zero since there is no movement on the Y-axis.
Since the body moves at a constant speed, there is no acceleration so the sum of forces on the X-axis must be equal to zero.
The frictional force is defined as the product of the coefficient of friction by the normal force. In this way, we can calculate the coefficient of friction.
The process of solving this problem can be seen in the attached image.
Answer:
14 m/s²
Explanation:
Start with Newton's 2nd law: Fnet=ma, with F being force, m being mass, and a being acceleration. The applied forces on the left and right side of the block are equivalent, so they cancel out and are negligible. That way, you only have to worry about the y direction. Don't forget the force that gravity has the object. It appears to me that the object is falling, so there would be an additional force from going down from weight of the object. Weight is gravity (can be rounded to 10) x mass. Substitute 4N+weight in for Fnet and 1kg in for m.
(4N + 10 x 1kg)=(1kg)a
14/1=14, so the acceleration is 14 m/s²
