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LuckyWell [14K]
3 years ago
10

A 4-pole, 3-phase induction motor operates from a supply whose frequency is 60 Hz. calculate: 1- the speed at which the magnetic

field of the stator is rotating
Engineering
1 answer:
rusak2 [61]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

A 4-pole, 3-phase induction motor operates from a supply whose frequency is 60 Hz. calculate: 1- the speed at which the magnetic field of the stator is rotating. 2- the speed of the rotor when the slip is 0.05. 3- the frequency of the rotor currents when the slip is 0.04. 4- the frequency of the rotor currents at standstill.

Given that:

number of poles (p) = 4, frequency (f) = 60 Hz

1) The synchronous speed of the motor is the speed at which the magnetic field of the stator is rotating. It is given as:

n_s=\frac{120f}{p}=\frac{120*60}{4}=1800\ rpm

2) The slip (s) = 0.05

The speed of the motor (n) is the speed of the rotor, it is given as:

n=n_s-sn_s\\\\n=1800-0.05(1800)\\\\n=1800-90\\\\n=1710\ rpm

3) s = 0.04

The rotor frequency is the product of the supply frequency and slip it is given as:

f_r=sf\\\\f_r=0.04*60\\\\f_r=2.4\ Hz

4) At standstill, the motor speed is zero hence the slip = 1:

s=\frac{n_s-n}{n_s}\\ \\n=0\\\\s=\frac{n_s-0}{n_s}\\\\s=1

The rotor frequency is the product of the supply frequency and slip it is given as:

f_r=sf\\\\f_r=1*60\\\\f_r=60\ Hz

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X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.
Lemur [1.5K]

It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

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4 0
2 years ago
A power of 100 kW (105 W) is delivered to the other side of a city by a pair of power lines, between which the voltage is 12,000
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Answer:

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Explanation:

Power = 100 KW

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a)

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3 years ago
120 litres of water is discharge from container in 25 seconds. Find the rate of discharge in cumecs.if the discharge took place
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<h2>Answer:</h2>

Rate of discharge in cumecs: <u>0.0048m³/s</u>.

Velocity flow: <u>24m/s</u>.

<h2>Explanation:</h2>

<h3>1. Find the rate of discharge in cumecs.</h3>

a. Convert from litres to m³.
120L*1000= 120000mL

120000mL=120000cm³

120000cm³/100³=0.12 m³.

b. Rate of discharge.

<em>If  0.12 m³ where discharged in 25 seconds, the rate of discharge is:</em>

0.12m³/25s = 0.0048m³/s.

<em />

<em />

<h3>2. Find the velocity flow.</h3>

Let's refer to the fluid mechanics equation that relates volume flow, area and velocity. This is the formula:

\frac{dV}{dt}=Av; where the expression \frac{dV}{dt} is the volume flow rate (in m³/s); A is the cross-sectional area of the pipe (in m²), and v is the velocity flow (in m/s).

a. Solve the equation for v.

\frac{dV}{dt}=Av\\ \\(\frac{dV}{dt})/A=v\\ \\v=(\frac{dV}{dt})/A

b. Calculate the cross-sectional area of the pipe.

<em>The cross-sectional area of the pipe is a circle. Hence, the formula of this area is:</em>

A=\pi r^{2}

<em>We'll have to convert the diameter to meters, because the formula for flow velocity needs the area in m². Let's go ahead and do that.</em>

<em />50mm/1000=0.05m.

<em>We were given the diameter, and the formula uses the radius, but the radius is just half of the diameter, therefore, we can substitute in toe formula like this:</em>

A=\pi (\frac{0.05}{2} )^{2}=0.0020m^{2}

c. Substitute in the new expression for velocity flow and calculate.

v=(\frac{dV}{dt})/A\\ \\v=(\frac{0.048m^{3} }{1s})/(0.0020m^{2} )\\\\ v= 24m/s

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