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Julli [10]
3 years ago
7

If we take away a lot of energy from a liquid what phase will it change to ?

Physics
1 answer:
DanielleElmas [232]3 years ago
8 0

The liquid would change to gas

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What is an advantage of forced air heating?
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i do believe the answer is c not sure but correct me if im wrong

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With a bit of algebraic reasoning find your gravitational acceleration toward any planet of mass M a distance d from its center.
grandymaker [24]

The acceleration due to gravity is given as:

                             g = GM/r²

<h3>Derivation of gravitational acceleration:</h3>

According to Newton's second law of motion,

F = ma

where,

F = force

m = mass

a = acceleration

According to Newton's law of gravity,

F<em>g </em>= GMm/(r + h)²

F<em>g = </em>gravitational force

From Newton's second law of motion,

F<em>g </em>= ma

a = F<em>g</em>/m

We can refer to "a" as "g"

a = g = GMm/(m)(r + h)²

g = GM/(r + h)²

When the object is on or close to the surface, the value of g is constant and height has no considerable impact. Hence, it can be written as,

g = GM/r²

Learn more about gravitational acceleration here:

brainly.com/question/2142879

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5 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is not an example of a polymer?
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Concrete is not a polymer which Nylon, and Kevlar are
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3 years ago
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Phase change from a liquid to a solid is what type of property change
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It is to freeze an object
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At a given instant an object has an angular velocity. It also has an angular acceleration due to torques that are present. There
katen-ka-za [31]

a) Constant

b) Constant

Explanation:

a)

We can answer this question by using the equivalent of Newton's second law of motion of rotational motion, which can be written as:

\tau_{net} = I \alpha (1)

where

\tau_{net} is the net torque acting on the object in rotation

I is the moment of inertia of the object

\alpha is the angular acceleration

The angular acceleration is the rate of change of the angular velocity, so it can be written as

\alpha = \frac{\Delta \omega}{\Delta t}

where

\Delta \omega is the change in angular velocity

\Delta t is the time interval

So we can rewrite eq.(1) as

\tau_{net}=I\frac{\Delta \omega}{\Delta t}

In this problem, we are told that at a given instant, the object has an angular acceleration due to the presence of torques, so there is a non-zero change in angular velocity.

Then, additional torques are applied, so that the net torque suddenly equal to zero, so:

\tau_{net}=0

From the previous equation, this implies that

\Delta \omega =0

Which means that the angular velocity at that instant does not change anymore.

b)

In this second case instead, all the torques are suddenly removed.

This also means that the net torque becomes zero as well:

\tau_{net}=0

Therefore, this means that

\Delta \omega =0

So also in this case, there is no change in angular velocity: this means that the angular velocity of the object will remain constant.

So cases (a) and (b) are basically the same situation, as the net torque is zero in both cases, so the object acts in the same way.

8 0
3 years ago
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