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Scrat [10]
3 years ago
14

A small plastic bead has been charged to -15nC.

Physics
1 answer:
marishachu [46]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

q = - 15 n C = - 15 x 10^-9 c

(a) d = 0.9 cm = 0.009 m

electric field on proton, E = Kq/d²

E = 9 x 10^9 x 15 x 10^-9 / (0.009)²

E = 1.67 x 10^6 N/C

Force on proton, F = charge on proton x Electric field

F = 1.6 x 10^-19 x 1.67 x 10^6 = 2.67 x 10^-13 N

acceleration of proton, a = F / m

a = (2.67 x 10^-13) / (1.67 x 10^-27)

a = 1.6 x 10^14 m/s²

(B) the direction of acceleration is towards the bead, as the force is attractive.

(C) d = 0.9 cm = 0.009 m

electric field on proton, E = Kq/d²

E = 9 x 10^9 x 15 x 10^-9 / (0.009)²

E = 1.67 x 10^6 N/C

Force on electron, F = charge on electron x Electric field

F = 1.6 x 10^-19 x 1.67 x 10^6 = 2.67 x 10^-13 N

acceleration of proton, a = F / m

a = (2.67 x 10^-13) / (9.1 x 10^-31)

a = 3 x 10^17 m/s²

(D) the direction of acceleration is away from the bead, as the force is repulsive.  

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babunello [35]

Answer:

While a body is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to immediate surroundings.

A body is said to be in uniform motion if it covers equal distances in equal interval of time.

A body is said to be in non-uniform motion if it covers unequal distances in equal interval of time or vice-versa

4 0
2 years ago
Why is the sign of the emf of the second peak opposite to the sign of the first peak?
eimsori [14]
Because AC emf is a sine wave
7 0
3 years ago
What is mass times acceleration?
frozen [14]

Answer:

Force

Explanation:

The mass of an object is the quantity of matter it contains. It is measured in kilograms.

Acceleration is the ratio of the change in the velocity of an object to the change in time. It is measured in m/s^{2}.

When the mass of an object is multiplied with its acceleration, this gives the average force applied on the object. As force is defined as agent that can change the state of an object.

i.e     F = m × a

where F is the force, m is the mass of the object and a its acceleration.

The two major classes of force are; contact force and field force.

6 0
3 years ago
Tennis balls traveling at greater than 100 mph routinely bounce off tennis rackets. At some sufficiently high speed, however, th
Kipish [7]

Answer:

Probability of tunneling is 10^{- 1.17\times 10^{32}}

Solution:

As per the question:

Velocity of the tennis ball, v = 120 mph = 54 m/s

Mass of the tennis ball, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg

Thickness of the tennis ball, t = 2.0 mm = 2.0\times 10^{- 3}\ m

Max velocity of the tennis ball, v_{m} = 200\ mph = 89 m/s

Now,

The maximum kinetic energy of the tennis ball is given by:

KE = \frac{1}{2}mv_{m}^{2} = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.1\times 89^{2} = 396.05\ J

Kinetic energy of the tennis ball, KE' = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2} = 0.5\times 0.1\times 54^{2} = 154.8\ m/s

Now, the distance the ball can penetrate to is given by:

\eta = \frac{\bar{h}}{\sqrt{2m(KE - KE')}}

\bar{h} = \frac{h}{2\pi} = \frac{6.626\times 10^{- 34}}{2\pi} = 1.0545\times 10^{- 34}\ Js

Thus

\eta = \frac{1.0545\times 10^{- 34}}{\sqrt{2\times 0.1(396.05 - 154.8)}}

\eta = \frac{1.0545\times 10^{- 34}}{\sqrt{2\times 0.1(396.05 - 154.8)}}

\eta = 1.52\times 10^{-35}\ m

Now,

We can calculate the tunneling probability as:

P(t) = e^{\frac{- 2t}{\eta}}

P(t) = e^{\frac{- 2\times 2.0\times 10^{- 3}}{1.52\times 10^{-35}}} = e^{-2.63\times 10^{32}}

P(t) = e^{-2.63\times 10^{32}}

Taking log on both the sides:

logP(t) = -2.63\times 10^{32} loge

P(t) = 10^{- 1.17\times 10^{32}}

6 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP
worty [1.4K]

Explanation:

by momentum conservation

64× v=42×3.11

v=2.04m/s

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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