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anastassius [24]
3 years ago
11

HELP PLEASE

Physics
2 answers:
Artemon [7]3 years ago
5 0

Explanation:

Electromagnetic induction: It is the phenomenon of the production of electromagnetic force across the conductor by changing the magnetic field.

The current can be induced by moving the conductor in the magnetic field. The current can also be induced by changing the magnetic field across the conductor.

The induced current can be increased in the coil by the following ways:

By increasing the strength of the magnet.

By increasing the speed of the magnet through the coil.

By adding more loops of wire to the coil.

By increasing the magnetic flux.

Therefore, "by moving the magnet away from the coil" will not increase the electric current induced in a wire. It will decrease the electric current induced in the wire.

Ira Lisetskai [31]3 years ago
3 0
The answer is magnet away from the coil
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When you take your 1900-kg car out for a spin, you go around a corner of radius 55 m with a speed of 15 m/s. The coefficient of
pentagon [3]

Answer:

7772.72N

Explanation:

When u draw your FBD, you realize you have 3 forces (ignore the force the car produces), gravity, normal force and static friction. You also realize that gravity and normal force are in our out of the page  (drawn with a frame of reference above the car). So that leaves you with static friction in the centripetal direction.

Now which direction is the static friction, assume that it is pointing inward so

Fc=Fs=mv²/r=1900*15²/55=427500/55=7772.72N

Since the car is not skidding we do not have kinetic friction so there can only be static friction. One reason we do not use μFn is because that is the formula for maximum static friction, and the problem does not state there is maximum static friction.

7 0
3 years ago
Two isolated, concentric, conducting spherical shells have radii R1 = 0.500 m and R2 = 1.00 m, uniform charges q1=+2.00 µC and q
scZoUnD [109]

Complete Question

The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image  

Answer:

a E =1.685*10^3 N/C

b E =36.69*10^3 N/C

c E = 0 N/C

d V = 6.7*10^3 V

e   V = 26.79*10^3V

f   V = 34.67 *10^3 V

g   V= 44.95*10^3 V

h    V= 44.95*10^3 V

i    V= 44.95*10^3 V

Explanation:

From the question we are given that

       The first charge q_1 = 2.00 \mu C = 2.00*10^{-6} C

       The second charge q_2 =1.00 \muC = 1.00*10^{-6}

      The first radius R_1 = 0.500m

      The second radius R_2 = 1.00m

 Generally \ Electric \ field = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{q_1+\ q_2}{r^2}

And Potential \ Difference = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0}   [\frac{q_1 }{r}+\frac{q_2}{R_2} ]

The objective is to obtain the the magnitude of electric for different cases

And the potential difference for other cases

Considering a

                      r  = 4.00 m

           E = \frac{((2+1)*10^{-6})*8.99*10^9}{16}

                = 1.685*10^3 N/C

Considering b

           r = 0.700 m \ , R_2 > r > R_1

This implies that the electric field would be

            E = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0}\frac{q_1}{r^2}

             This because it the electric filed of the charge which is below it in distance that it would feel

            E = 8*99*10^9  \frac{2*10^{-6}}{0.4900}

               = 36.69*10^3 N/C

   Considering c

                      r  = 0.200 m

=>   r

 The electric field = 0

     This is because the both charge are above it in terms of distance so it wont feel the effect of their electric field

       Considering d

                  r  = 4.00 m

=> r > R_1 >r>R_2

Now the potential difference is

                  V =\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} \frac{q_1 + \ q_2}{r} = 8.99*10^9 * \frac{3*10^{-6}}{4} = 6.7*10^3 V

This so because the distance between the charge we are considering is further than the two charges given  

          Considering e

                       r = 1.00 m R_2 = r > R_1

                V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2}  ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{1.00} \frac{1.00*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 26.79 *10^3 V

          Considering f

              r = 0.700 m \ , R_2 > r > R_1

                      V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2}  ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.700} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 34.67 *10^3 V

          Considering g

             r =0.500\m , R_1 >r =R_1

   V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{r} +\frac{q_2}{R_2}  ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V

          Considering h

                r =0.200\m , R_1 >R_1>r

  V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{R_1} +\frac{q_2}{R_2}  ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V

           Considering i    

   r =0\ m \ , R_1 >R_1>r

  V = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} [\frac{q_1}{R_1} +\frac{q_2}{R_2}  ] = 8.99*10^9 * [\frac{2.00*10^{-6}}{0.500} \frac{1.0*10^{-6}}{1.00} ] = 44.95 *10^3 V

8 0
3 years ago
A truck skids for a distance of 25 m with the road pushing on its tires with force of 1500 N as its brakes
MakcuM [25]

Answer:-6800J

Explanation: 8.0m x 850N = 6800

Rewritten as a negative when brake/stop -6800

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which statement explains how planets move in orbit as supported by Newton’s first law of motion?
GuDViN [60]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

got a one hundred on the test

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A two-slit Fraunhofer interference-diffraction pattern is observed with light of wavelength 672 nm. The slits have widths of 0.0
ololo11 [35]

Answer:

Explanation:

In case of diffraction , angular width of central maxima =2 λ/d

λ is wave length of light and d is slit width

In case of interference , angular width of each fringe

= λ /D

D is distance between two slits

No of interference fringe in central diffraction fringe

=2 λ/d x D/λ = 2 x D /d = 2 x .24/.03 = 16.

6 0
3 years ago
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