1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Hatshy [7]
2 years ago
15

A 10.2 mm diameter steel circular rod is subjected to a tensile load that reduces its cross- sectional area to 52.7 mm^2. Determ

ine rod's percent ductility
Engineering
1 answer:
VMariaS [17]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The percentage ductility is 35.5%.

Explanation:

Ductility is the ability of being deform under applied load. Ductility can measure by percentage elongation and percentage reduction in area. Here, percentage reduction in area method is taken to measure the ductility.

Step1

Given:

Diameter of shaft is 10.2 mm.

Final area of the shaft is 52.7 mm².

Calculation:

Step2

Initial area is calculated as follows:

A=\frac{\pi d^{2}}{4}

A=\frac{\pi\times(10.2)^{2}}{4}

A = 81.713 mm².

Step3

Percentage ductility is calculated as follows:

D=\frac{A_{i}-A_{f}}{A_{i}}\times100

D=\frac{81.713-52.7}{81.713}\times100

D = 35.5%.

Thus, the percentage ductility is 35.5%.

You might be interested in
In the circuit given below, R1 = 17 kΩ, R2 = 74 kΩ, and R3 = 5 MΩ. Calculate the gain 1formula58.mml when the switch is in posit
Elenna [48]

Answer:a

a) Vo/Vi = - 3.4

b) Vo/Vi = - 14.8

c) Vo/Vi = - 1000

Explanation:

a)

R1 = 17kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va -Vo)/17kΩ = 0

sin we know Va≈Vb=0

so

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/17kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 17k/5k

Vo/Vi = -3.4

║Vo/Vi ║ = 3.4    ( negative sign phase inversion)

b)

R2 = 74kΩ

for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

so

(Va-Vi)/5kΩ + (Va-Vo)74kΩ = 0

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/74kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 74kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 14.8

║Vo/Vi ║ = 14.8  ( negative sign phase inversion)

c)

Also for ideal op-amp

Va≈Vb=0 so Va=0

Now for position 3 we apply nodal analysis we got at position 1

(Va - Vi)/5kΩ + (Va - Vo)/5000kΩ = 0           ( 5MΩ = 5000kΩ )

so

-Vi/5kΩ + -Vo/5000kΩ = 0

Vo/Vi = - 5000kΩ/5kΩ

Vo/Vi = - 1000

║Vo/Vi ║ = 1000  ( negative sign phase inversion)

3 0
3 years ago
Engineers are designing a cylindrical air tank and are trying to determine the dimensions of the tank. The proposed material for
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

The length of tank is found to be 0.6 m or 600 mm

Explanation:

In order to determine the length, we need to find a volume for the tank.

For this purpose, we use ideal gas equation:

PV  = nRT

n = no. of moles = m/M

Therefore,

PV = (m/M)(RT)

V = (mRT)/(MP)

where,

V = volume of air = volume of container

m = mass of air = 4.64 kg

R = General Gas Constant = 8.314 J/mol.k

T = temperature of air = 10°C + 273 = 283 K

M = molecular mass of air = 0.02897 kg/mol

P = Pressure of Air = 20 MPa = 20 x 10^6 N/m²

V = (4.64 kg)(8.314 J/mol.k)(283 k)/(0.02897 kg/mol)(20 x 10^6 N/m²)

V = 0.01884 m³

Now, the volume of cylindrical tank is given as:

V = 0.01884 m³ = π(Diameter/2)²(Length)

Length = (0.01884 m³)(4)/π(0.2 m)²

<u>Length = 0.6 m = 600 mm</u>

4 0
3 years ago
The capacity of a battery is 1800 mAh and its OCV is 3.9 V. a) Two batteries are placed in series. What is the combined battery
Lynna [10]

Answer:

capacity  = 0.555 mAh

capacity  = 3600 mAh

Explanation:

given data

battery = 1800 mAh

OCV = 3.9 V

solution

we get here capacity when it is in series

so here Q = 2C  

capacity  = 2 × ampere × second   ...............1

put here value and we get

and 1 Ah = 3600 C

capacity  = \frac{2}{3600}

capacity  = 0.555 mAh

and

when it is in parallel than capacity will be

capacity = Q1 +Q2   ...............2

capacity  = 1800 + 1800

capacity  = 3600 mAh

3 0
3 years ago
A drilling operation is performed on a steel part using a 12.7 mm diameter twist drill with a point angle of 118 degrees. The ho
Masteriza [31]

Answer:

a. Rotational speed of the drill  = 375.96 rev/min

b. Feed rate  = 75 mm/min

c. Approach allowance  = 3.815 mm

d. Cutting time  = 0.67 minutes

e. Metal removal rate after the drill bit reaches full diameter. = 9525 mm³/min

Explanation:

Here we have

a. N = v/(πD) = 15/(0.0127·π) = 375.96 rev/min

b. Feed rate = fr = Nf = 375.96 × 0.2 = 75 mm/min

c. Approach allowance = tan 118/2 = (12.7/2)/tan 118/2 = 3.815 mm

d. Approach allowance T∞ =L/fr = 50/75 = 0.67 minutes

e. R = 0.25πD²fr = 9525 mm³/min.

7 0
2 years ago
Do not answer pls thank you
astra-53 [7]

The answer is answered! Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • For a heat pump, COP&lt;1. a) True b) False
    11·1 answer
  • The water in a large lake is to be used to generate electricity by the installation of a hydraulic turbine-generator at a locati
    7·1 answer
  • In order to avoid slipping in the shop, your footwear should __
    10·2 answers
  • To remove a spark plug the technician would need a(n) ___socket​
    7·2 answers
  • The point of contact of two pitch circles of mating gears is called?
    10·1 answer
  • Deviations from the engineering drawing cannot be made without the approval of the
    15·2 answers
  • Explain race condition..<br><br>don't spam..​
    13·2 answers
  • In a typical American building, most modern lighting systems must use what voltage?
    12·1 answer
  • What are the philological elements of interior design most like?
    15·1 answer
  • A common boundary-crossing problem for engineers is when their home country' values come into sharp contrast with the host count
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!