Ask question

Ask question

All categories

2 years ago

6

Sara and Greg built an electromagnet in science class. They wrapped 50 turns of copper wire around an iron nail and hooked the e

nds of the wire to a 1.5 volt battery. They picked up 15 paper clips with their electromagnet, but they want to make it stronger. What should they do?
A) Decrease the battery size.
B) Use a nail with a galvanized coating.
C) Wrap more turns of wire around the nail.
D) Replace the iron nail with a piece of steel.

2 answers:

frez [133]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

C)

Explanation:

Iteru [2.4K]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:Wrap more turns of wire around the nail.

Explanation:The power of an electromagnet is directly proportional to the amount of electricity passing through that electromagnet.

Now,if they increase the number of rounds of the copper coil,the electricity conducting surface amount will also increase.

And that's why the electricity passing through that electromagnet will increase along with the electromagnetic power of that electromagnet.

• Increasing the battery voltage :

If they increase the battery voltage,the electricity which is passing through that electromagnet will also increase in amount .

And as discussed previously,the increasing amount of electricity will also increase the electromagnetic abilities of the electromagnet.

You might be interested in

A ball has a mass of 1.5kg and is thrown straight up with a speed of 60m/s, what is the ball’s momentum:

madam [21]

Answer:

Assumption: the air resistance on this ball is negligible. Take $g = 10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ .

a. The momentum of the ball would be approximately $60\;\rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ two seconds after it is tossed into the air.

b. The momentum of the ball would be approximately $\rm \left(-45\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}\right)$ three seconds after it reaches the highest point (assuming that it didn't hit the ground.) This momentum is smaller than zero because it points downwards.

Explanation:

The momentum $p$ of an object is equal its mass $m$ times its velocity $v$ . That is: $\vec{p} = m \cdot \vec{v}$ .

Assume that the air resistance on this ball is negligible. If that's the case, then the ball would accelerate downwards towards the ground at a constant $g \approx -10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ . In other words, its velocity would become approximately $10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ more negative every second.

The initial velocity of the ball is $60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . After two seconds, its velocity would have become $60\;\rm m \cdot s^{-1} + 2\; \rm s \times \left(-10\;\rm m \cdot s^{-1}\right) = 40\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . The momentum of the ball at that time would be around $p = m \cdot v \approx 60\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}$ .

When the ball is at the highest point of its trajectory, the velocity of the ball would be zero. However, the ball would continue to accelerate downwards towards the ground at a constant $g \approx -10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}$ . That's how the ball's velocity becomes negative.

After three more seconds, the velocity of the ball would be $0\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1} + 3\; \rm s \times \left(-10\; \rm m \cdot s^{-2}\right) = -30 \; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}$ . Accordingly, the ball's momentum at that moment would be $p = m \cdot v \approx \left(-45\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}\right)$ .

3 0

3 years ago

A spherical ball is dropped through a liquid, explain why it reaches terminal velocity.

Alekssandra [29.7K]

Probably because of the drag coefficient and the density of the liquid.

8 0

3 years ago

Why centre of mass equal to centre of gravity

Maksim231197 [3]

Because mass and distance determine gravity, so the more mass you have, the more gravity.

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Consider a block on frictionless ice. Starting from rest, the block travels a distance din

sweet [91]

Answer:

<em>The distance is now 4d</em>

Explanation:

<u>Mechanical Force</u>

According to the second Newton's law, the net force exerted by an external agent on an object of mass m is:

F = m.a

Where a is the acceleration of the object.

The acceleration can be calculated by solving for a:

$\displaystyle a=\frac{F}{m}$

Once we know the acceleration, we can calculate the distance traveled by the block as follows:

$\displaystyle d = vo.t+\frac{at^2}{2}$

If the block starts from rest, vo=0:

$\displaystyle d = \frac{at^2}{2}$

Substituting the value of the acceleration:

$\displaystyle d = \frac{\frac{F}{m}t^2}{2}$

Simplifying:

$\displaystyle d = \frac{Ft^2}{2m}$

When a force F'=4F is applied and assuming the mass is the same, the new acceleration is:

$\displaystyle a'=\frac{4F}{m}$

And the distance is now:

$\displaystyle d' = \frac{4Ft^2}{2m}$

Dividing d'/d:

$\displaystyle \frac{d' }{d}=\frac{\frac{4Ft^2}{2m}}{\frac{Ft^2}{2m}}$

Simplifying:

$\displaystyle \frac{d' }{d}=4$

Thus:

d' = 4d

The distance is now 4d

3 0

2 years ago

The force of attraction between two oppositely charged pith is 5mx 10 to the -6th power newtons. If the charge on the two is 6.7

My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

0.28 m

Explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

Force (F) = 5×10¯⁶ N

Charge 1 (q₁) = 6.7×10¯⁹ C

Charge 2 (q₂) = 6.7×10¯⁹ C

Electrical constant (K) = 9×10⁹ Nm²C¯²

Distance apart (r) =?

Thus, the distance between the two charges can be obtained as follow:

F = Kq₁q₂/r²

5×10¯⁶ = 9×10⁹ × 6.7×10¯⁹ × 6.7×10¯⁹/r²

5×10¯⁶ = 4.0401×10¯⁷ / r²

Cross multiply

5×10¯⁶ × r² = 4.0401×10¯⁷

Divide both side by 5×10¯⁶

r² = 4.0401×10¯⁷ / 5×10¯⁶

Take the square root of both side

r = √(4.0401×10¯⁷ / 5×10¯⁶)

r = 0.28 m

Therefore, the distance between the two charges is 0.28 m

4 0

2 years ago