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mr Goodwill [35]
2 years ago
11

a 1.00 kg mass is placed at the free end of a compressed spring. The force constant of the spring is 115 N/m. The spring has bee

n compressed 0.200 m from its neutral position. it is now released. neglecting the mass of the spring and assuming that the mass is sliding on a frictionless surface, how fast will the mass move as it passes the neutral position of the spring?
Physics
1 answer:
frosja888 [35]2 years ago
8 0

Here 1 kg mass is hold against compressed spring

when it is released and reached to natural position it will start moving with certain speed

As per energy concept we will now say that potential energy stored in the spring will convert into kinetic energy of the block

so here we will say

U_{spring} = KE_{block}

\frac{1}{2}kx^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv^2

115(0.20)^2 = 1.00(v^2}

v = 2.145 m/s

so block will released with speed 2.145 m/s

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Artyom0805 [142]
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4 0
3 years ago
45 grams in kilo grams
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

0.045 kg

Explanation:

1000 grams = 1kg

7 0
3 years ago
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A circular loop of wire with a radius of 20 cm lies in the xy plane and carries a current of 2 A, counterclockwise when viewed f
Zina [86]

To solve this problem we will apply the concept related to the magnetic dipole moment that is defined as the product between the current and the object area. In our case we have the radius so we will get the area, which would be

A=\pi r^2

A =\pi (0.2)^2

A =0.1256 m^2

Once the area is obtained, it is possible to calculate the magnetic dipole moment considering the previously given definition:

\mu=IA

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6 0
3 years ago
Consider a spring mass system (mass m1, spring constant k) with period T1. Now consider a spring mass system with the same sprin
tatuchka [14]

Answer:

Assuming that both mass here move horizontally on a frictionless surface, and that this spring follows Hooke's Law, then the mass of m_2 would be four times that of m_1.

Explanation:

In general, if the mass in a spring-mass system moves horizontally on a frictionless surface, and that the spring follows Hooke's Law, then

\displaystyle \frac{m_2}{m_1} = \left(\frac{T_2}{T_1}\right)^2.

Here's how this statement can be concluded from the equations for a simple harmonic motion (SHM.)

In an SHM, if the period is T, then the angular velocity of the SHM would be

\displaystyle \omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}.

Assume that the mass starts with a zero displacement and a positive velocity. If A represent the amplitude of the SHM, then the displacement of the mass at time t would be:

\mathbf{x}(t) = A\sin(\omega\cdot t).

The velocity of the mass at time t would be:

\mathbf{v}(t) = A\,\omega \, \cos(\omega\, t).

The acceleration of the mass at time t would be:

\mathbf{a}(t) = -A\,\omega^2\, \sin(\omega \, t).

Let m represent the size of the mass attached to the spring. By Newton's Second Law, the net force on the mass at time t would be:

\mathbf{F}(t) = m\, \mathbf{a}(t) = -m\, A\, \omega^2 \, \cos(\omega\cdot t),

Since it is assumed that the mass here moves on a horizontal frictionless surface, only the spring could supply the net force on the mass. Therefore, the force that the spring exerts on the mass will be equal to the net force on the mass. If the spring satisfies Hooke's Law, then the spring constant k will be equal to:

\begin{aligned} k &= -\frac{\mathbf{F}(t)}{\mathbf{x}(t)} \\ &= \frac{m\, A\, \omega^2\, \cos(\omega\cdot t)}{A \cos(\omega \cdot t)} \\ &= m \, \omega^2\end{aligned}.

Since \displaystyle \omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}, it can be concluded that:

\begin{aligned} k &= m \, \omega^2 = m \left(\frac{2\pi}{T}\right)^2\end{aligned}.

For the first mass m_1, if the time period is T_1, then the spring constant would be:

\displaystyle k = m_1\, \left(\frac{2\pi}{T_1}\right)^2.

Similarly, for the second mass m_2, if the time period is T_2, then the spring constant would be:

\displaystyle k = m_2\, \left(\frac{2\pi}{T_2}\right)^2.

Since the two springs are the same, the two spring constants should be equal to each other. That is:

\displaystyle m_1\, \left(\frac{2\pi}{T_1}\right)^2 = k = m_2\, \left(\frac{2\pi}{T_2}\right)^2.

Simplify to obtain:

\displaystyle \frac{m_2}{m_1} = \left(\frac{T_2}{T_1}\right)^2.

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