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tangare [24]
3 years ago
14

What is Hubbles Law?​

Physics
2 answers:
Whitepunk [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Hubble's law is considered the first observational basis for the expansion of the universe and today serves as one of the pieces of evidence most often cited in support of the Big Bang model.The motion of astronomical objects due solely to this expansion is known as the Hubble flow.

STALIN [3.7K]3 years ago
4 0

Explanation: Hubble was a person but they named a satellite that they sent out into outer space after him. He discovered that the galaxies that are the furthest away are moving the fastest away from us and the galaxies that are closer to us are moving at a slower rate.

So that is Hubble's law. Hubble's law is a mathematical thing that you can do if you take higher level astronomy. There is a mathematical relationship that you can figure out which is the the further away something is the faster it's moving away.

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Energy can come from electricity, but it<br> can also come from water<br> false<br> true
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Answer:

the answer is truth

Explanation:

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Explain a lever and a pivot in a full sentence​
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Nanotechnology is proving ineffective at helping clean up PCB’s. True orFalse
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At a given instant an object has an angular velocity. It also has an angular acceleration due to torques that are present. There
katen-ka-za [31]

a) Constant

b) Constant

Explanation:

a)

We can answer this question by using the equivalent of Newton's second law of motion of rotational motion, which can be written as:

\tau_{net} = I \alpha (1)

where

\tau_{net} is the net torque acting on the object in rotation

I is the moment of inertia of the object

\alpha is the angular acceleration

The angular acceleration is the rate of change of the angular velocity, so it can be written as

\alpha = \frac{\Delta \omega}{\Delta t}

where

\Delta \omega is the change in angular velocity

\Delta t is the time interval

So we can rewrite eq.(1) as

\tau_{net}=I\frac{\Delta \omega}{\Delta t}

In this problem, we are told that at a given instant, the object has an angular acceleration due to the presence of torques, so there is a non-zero change in angular velocity.

Then, additional torques are applied, so that the net torque suddenly equal to zero, so:

\tau_{net}=0

From the previous equation, this implies that

\Delta \omega =0

Which means that the angular velocity at that instant does not change anymore.

b)

In this second case instead, all the torques are suddenly removed.

This also means that the net torque becomes zero as well:

\tau_{net}=0

Therefore, this means that

\Delta \omega =0

So also in this case, there is no change in angular velocity: this means that the angular velocity of the object will remain constant.

So cases (a) and (b) are basically the same situation, as the net torque is zero in both cases, so the object acts in the same way.

8 0
3 years ago
Is it possible to calculate the displacement based on an elapsed time from a position time graph?
Nataly [62]
No I don’t think so. But it worth a try tho. Try it out.
5 0
3 years ago
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