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lilavasa [31]
3 years ago
15

Motor oil , with a viscosity of 0 . 250 Ns / m2 , is flowing through a tube that has a radius of 5 . 00 mm and is 25 . 0 cm long

. The drop in pressure is 300 kPa . What is the volume of oil flowing through the tube per unit time ?
Physics
1 answer:
Thepotemich [5.8K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1.1775 x 10^-3 m^3 /s

Explanation:

viscosity, η = 0.250 Ns/m^2

radius, r = 5 mm = 5 x 10^-3 m

length, l = 25 cm = 0.25 m

Pressure, P = 300 kPa = 300000 Pa

According to the Poisuellie's formula

Volume flow per unit time is

V=\frac{\pi \times Pr^{4}}{8\eta l}

V=\frac{3.14 \times 300000\times \left ( 5\times 10^{-3} \right )^{4}}{8\times 0.250\times 0.25}

V = 1.1775 x 10^-3 m^3 /s

Thus, the volume of oil flowing per second is 1.1775 x 10^-3 m^3 /s.

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so this supports it because the pendulum never reaches the same height twice unless you reset it so the energy is always getting less and less and not randomly getting back onto the pendulum.

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3 years ago
In a physics laboratory experiment, a coil with 200 turns enclosing an area of 13.1 cm2 is rotated during the time interval 3.10
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

A)\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9}

B)\Phi=0 Wb

C)emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

Explanation:

Given that:

  • no. of turns i the coil, n=200
  • area of the coil, a=13.1 \times 10^{-4}\,m^2
  • time interval of rotation, t=3.1\times 10^{-2}\,s
  • intensity of magnetic field, B=6.4\times 10^{-5}\,T

(A)

Initially the coil area is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

So, magnetic flux is given as:

\Phi=B.a\,cos \theta..................................(1)

\theta is the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field lines. Area vector is always perpendicular to the area given. In this case area vector is parallel to the magnetic field.

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 0^{\circ}

\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9} Wb

(B)

In this case the plane area is parallel to the magnetic field i.e. the area vector is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

∴  \theta=90^{\circ}

From eq. (1)

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 90^{\circ}

\Phi=0 Wb

(C)

According to the Faraday's Law we have:

emf=n\frac{B.a}{t}

emf=\frac{200\times 6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}}{3.1\times 10^{-2}}

emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

7 0
3 years ago
Physical Science, please explain!
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

4N

Explanation:

because the net force is greater in the right direction

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You can use fixture wires: For installation in luminaires where they are enclosed and protected and not subject to bending and twisting and also can be used to connect luminaires to their branch circuit conductors.

<h3>What are some uses of fixture wires?</h3>

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In modern fixtures, neutral wire is white and the hot wire is red or black. In some types of fixtures, both wires will be of the same color.

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