All categories

3 years ago

A dog has a weight of 700N find the mass of the dog

Physics

1 answer:

Stolb23 [73]3 years ago

8 0

The specific answer for that will be 71.38 kg

You might be interested in

A ball is dropped from a height of 20 meters. At what helght does the ball have a velocity of 10 meters/second?

Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

5.10 meters.

Explanation:

v²=u²+2gh

or, (10)²=(0)²+2×9.8×h

or, 19.6h=100

or, h=5.10 meters

Hope, this helps you.

8 0

2 years ago

How efficient are the small and large scale solar-power systems used in individual homes and industrial settings?

alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

I study physics too, want me to study with you?

6 0

3 years ago

"a musical tone sounded on a piano has a frequency of 261.6 hz and a wavelength of 1.31 m. what is the speed of the sound wave

Andreyy89

To solve this question, we use the wave equation which is:
C=f*λ
where:
C is the speed;
f is the frequency;
λ is the wavelength
So in this case, plugging in our values in the problem. This will give us:
C = 261.6Hz × 1.31m
= 342.696 m/s is the answer.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

5 0

3 years ago

Who makes the first atomic bomb?

Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

Robert Oppenheimer made the first atomic bomb.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers