So, the angular frequency of the blades approximately <u>36.43π rad/s</u>.
<h3>Introduction</h3>
Hi ! Here I will discuss about the angular frequency or what is also often called the angular velocity because it has the same unit dimensions. <u>Angular frequency occurs, when an object vibrates (either moving harmoniously / oscillating or moving in a circle)</u>. Angular frequency can be roughly interpreted as the magnitude of the change in angle (in units of rad) per unit time. So, based on this understanding, the angular frequency can be calculated using the equation :
With the following condition :
= angular frequency (rad/s)
= change of angle value (rad)- t = interval of the time (s)
<h3>Problem Solving</h3>
We know that :
- = change of angle value = 1,000 revolution = 1,000 × 2π rad = 2,000π rad/s >> Remember 1 rev = 2π rad/s.
- t = interval of the time = 54.9 s.
What was asked :
- = angular frequency = ... rad/s
Step by step :
<h3>Conclusion :</h3>
So, the angular frequency of the blades approximately 36.43π rad/s.
Answer:
1. Distance travelled = 12 km.
2. Displacement = 8.6 km
Explanation:
From the question given above, the following data were obtained:
Distance 1 (d₁) = 7 km
Distance 2 (d₂) = 5 km
Total distance =?
Displacement =?
1. Determination of the distance travelled.
Distance 1 (d₁) = 7 km
Distance 2 (d₂) = 5 km
Total distance (dₜ) =?
dₜ = d₁ + d₂
dₜ = 7 + 5
dₜ = 12 km
2. Determination of the displacement.
In the attached photo, R is the displacement.
We can obtain the value of R by using the pythagoras theory as illustrated below:
R² = 7² + 5²
R² = 49 + 25
R² = 74
Take the square root of both side
R = √74
R = 8.6 km
1 - Skull
2 - Mandible
3 - Scapula
4 - Sternum
5 - Ulna
6 - Radius
7 - Pelvis
8 - Femur
9 - Patella
10 - Tibia
11 - Fibula
12 - Metatarsals
13 - Clavicle
14 - Ribs (rib cage)
15 - Humerus
16 - Spinal column
17 - Carpals
18 - Metacarpals
19 - Phalanges
20 - Tarsals
21 - Phalanges
Answer: 15.66 °
Explanation: In order to solve this proble we have to consirer the Loretz force for charge partcles moving inside a magnetic field. Thsi force is given by:
F=q v×B = qvB sin α where α is teh angle between the velocity and magnetic field vectors.
From this expression and using the given values we obtain the following:
F/(q*v*B) = sin α
3.8 * 10^-13/(1.6*10^-19*8.9*10^6* 0.96)= 0.27
then α =15.66°
Well I don't know. Let's actually LOOK at the picture and see if that helps.
A, B, C, and D all have the same TOTAL length, but A has the most waves crammed into that same total length.
By golly, that means the length of <u><em>each</em></u> wave in A must be shorter than each wave in B, C, or D.
The correct choice is <em> A </em>. Looking at the picture did the trick !
