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mojhsa [17]
2 years ago
8

Gina estimates that her moms truck weighs about 6,000 pounds. How can you write 6,000 using exponents?

Physics
2 answers:
Georgia [21]2 years ago
5 0
6x10^3  six times ten to the third power :)
Nookie1986 [14]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

6\times 10^{3} Pounds

Explanation:

Given that the Gina moms truck weight is 6000 pounds.

And we also know that the 6000 pounds can be written as in the form.

6000=6\times 10\times 10\times 10

Further more it can be written as,

6000Pounds=6\times 10^{3} Pounds

Therefore the weight of the truck which is 6000 Pounds can be written in exponential form as 6\times 10^{3} Pounds.

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How planets look like,and maybe How the planets were created
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3 years ago
An electron is released from rest at a distance of 6.00 cm from a proton. If the proton is held in place, how fast will the elec
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

91.87 m/s

Explanation:

<u>Given:</u>

  • x = initial distance of the electron from the proton = 6 cm = 0.06 m
  • y = initial distance of the electron from the proton = 3 cm = 0.03 m
  • u = initial velocity of the electron = 0 m/s

<u>Assume:</u>

  • m = mass of an electron = 9.1\times 10^{-31}\ kg
  • v = final velocity of the electron
  • e = magnitude of charge on an electron = 1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C
  • p = magnitude of charge on a proton = 1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C

We know that only only electric field due to proton causes to move from a distance of 6 cm from proton to 3 cm distance from it. This means the electric force force does work on the electron to move it from one initial position to the final position which is equal to the change in potential energy of the electron due to proton.

Now, according to the work-energy theorem, the total work done by the electric force on the electron due to proton is equal to the kinetic energy change in it.

\therefore \textrm{Kinetic energy change}= \textrm{Change in potential energy}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}m(v^2-u^2)= \dfrac{kpe}{y}-\dfrac{kpe}{x}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}m(v^2-(0)^2)= \dfrac{kpe}{0.03}-\dfrac{kpe}{0.06}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2= \dfrac{100kpe}{3}-\dfrac{100kpe}{6}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2= \dfrac{100kpe}{6}\\

\Rightarrow v^2= \dfrac{100kpe\times 2}{6m}\\\Rightarrow v^2= \dfrac{100kpe}{3m}\\\Rightarrow v^2= \dfrac{100\times 9\times 10^9\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}\times 1.6\times 10^{-19}}{3\times 9.1\times 10^{-31}}\\\Rightarrow v^2=8.44\times 10^3\\\Rightarrow v=91.87\ m/s\\

Hence, when the electron is at a distance of c cm from the proton, it moves with a velocity of 91.87 m/s.

8 0
3 years ago
Why does a ball accelerate as it rolls down a hill?
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The ball accelerates because of gravity.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A box with mass (m) it's sliding along on a friction-free surface at 9.87 m/s at a height of 1.81 meters. It travels down the hi
Rus_ich [418]
A) The answer is 11.53 m/s

The final kinetic energy (KEf) is the sum of initial kinetic energy (KEi) and initial potential energy (PEi).
KEf = KEi + PEi

Kinetic energy depends on mass (m) and velocity (v)
KEf = 1/2 m * vf²
KEi = 1/2 m * vi²

Potential energy depends on mass (m), acceleration (a), and height (h):
PEi = m * a * h

So:
KEf = KEi + <span>PEi
</span>1/2 m * vf² =  1/2 m * vi² + m * a * h
..
Divide all sides by m:
1/2 vf² =  1/2 vi² + a * h

We know:
vi = 9.87 m/s
a = 9.8 m/s²
h = 1.81 m

1/2 vf² =  1/2 * 9.87² + 9.8 * 1.81
1/2 vf² = 48.71 + 17.74
1/2 vf² = 66.45
vf² = 66.45 * 2
vf² = 132.9
vf = √132.9
vf = 11.53 m/s


b) The answer is 6.78 m

The kinetic energy at the bottom (KE) is equal to the potential energy at the highest point (PE)
KE = PE

Kinetic energy depends on mass (m) and velocity (v)
KE = 1/2 m * v²

Potential energy depends on mass (m), acceleration (a), and height (h):
PE = m * a * h

KE = PE
1/2 m * v² = m * a * h

Divide both sides by m:
1/2 * v² = a * h
v = 11.53 m/s
a = 9.8 m/s² 
h = ?

1/2 * 11.53² = 9.8 * h
1/2 * 132.94 = 9.8 * h
66.47 = 9.8 * h
h = 66.47 / 9.8
h = 6.78 m
3 0
3 years ago
What is the frequency of a wave that has a period of vibration of 2 seconds?
34kurt

Answer:

The answer is 0.5 Hz

Explanation:

Its pretty easy to get the answer. One hertz (Hz) is equal to one cycle or period per second. So, just divide the period by the number of seconds.

1 period/2 secs = 1/2 Hz or 0.5 Hz

7 0
2 years ago
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