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stellarik [79]
3 years ago
9

Research online and find details on collaborative/groupware applications and their types. Discuss how they facilitate group work

in a software organization.
Engineering
1 answer:
olya-2409 [2.1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a

Explanation:

a

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) In a disk test performed on a specimen 32-mm in diameter and 7 mm thick, the specimen fractures at a stress of 680 MPa. What w
Radda [10]

Answer:

Sorry it doesnt tall me anythikng

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
A pitfall cited in Section 1.10 is expecting to improve the overall performance of a computer by improving only one aspect of th
Oxana [17]

Answer:

a) For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

b) For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

c) A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

Explanation:

From the info given we know that a computer running a program that requires 250 s, with 70 s spent executing FP instructions, 85 s executed L/S instructions and 40 s spent executing branch instructions.

Part 1

For this case the new time to run the FP operation would be reduced 20% so that means 100-20% =80% from the original time

(1-0.2)*70 s =56s

The reduction on this case is 70-56 s=14s

And since the new total time would be given by 250-14=236 s

Part 2

For this case the total time is reduced 20%  so that means that the new total time would be (1-0.2)=0.8 times the original total time (1-0.2) *250s =200 s

The original time for INT operations is calculated as:

250 = 70+85+40 +t_{INT}

t_{INT}=55s

For this part the only time that was changed is assumed the INT operations so then:

200 = 70+85+40 \Delta t_{INT}

And then: \Delta t_{INT}= 200-70-85-40=5 s

And we can quantify the decrease using the relative change:

\% Change = \frac{5s}{55 s} *100 = 9.09\% of reduction

Part 3

A reduction of the total time implies that the total time would be 205 s from the results above. And the time for FP is 70, for L/S is 85 and for INT operations is 55 s, so then if we add 70+85+55=210s, we see that 210>205 so then we cannot reduce the total time 20% just reducing the branch intructions.

8 0
3 years ago
Question 64 (1 point)
Xelga [282]

Answer: c fine sand aggregate, portland cement,fine sand

Explanation:

7 0
4 years ago
Determine (a) the principal stresses and (b) the maximum in-plane shear stress and average normal stress at the point. Specify t
raketka [301]

Answer:

a) 53 MPa,  14.87 degree

b) 60.5 MPa  

Average shear = -7.5 MPa

Explanation:

Given

A = 45

B = -60

C = 30

a) stress P1 = (A+B)/2 + Sqrt ({(A-B)/2}^2 + C)

Substituting the given values, we get -

P1 = (45-60)/2 + Sqrt ({(45-(-60))/2}^2 + 30)

P1 = 53 MPa

Likewise P2 = (A+B)/2 - Sqrt ({(A-B)/2}^2 + C)

Substituting the given values, we get -

P1 = (45-60)/2 - Sqrt ({(45-(-60))/2}^2 + 30)

P1 = -68 MPa

Tan 2a = C/{(A-B)/2}

Tan 2a = 30/(45+60)/2

a = 14.87 degree

Principal stress

p1 = (45+60)/2 + (45-60)/2 cos 2a + 30 sin2a = 53 MPa

b) Shear stress in plane

Sqrt ({(45-(-60))/2}^2 + 30) = 60.5 MPa

Average = (45-(-60))/2 = -7.5 MPa

5 0
3 years ago
IM JI Suneou uo mm
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer: g

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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