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Romashka-Z-Leto [24]
4 years ago
8

Some magnets have just one pole Truth or false ?

Physics
2 answers:
Aliun [14]4 years ago
7 0
False
Every magnet has two poles, a  North pole, and another pole to counter that pole which would be a South pole. Magnetism is made through the pushing and pulling of magnetic electrons. A magnet can't be a magnet if opposites don't attract. Therefore, the statement made would be false.
leva [86]4 years ago
3 0
False

-A magnet can never have one pole, even a simple magnet was cut, each end would have an opposite south(-) or north(+) pull.
-This is the result of moving electrons
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Answer:

(a) F_i=68.58\ N

(b) F_i=69.903\ N

Explanation:

Given:

  • density of hydraulic oil, \rho=830\ kg.m^{-3}
  • radius of input piston, r_i=6.3\times 10^{-3}\ m
  • radius of output plunger, r_o=0.125\ m
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(a)

<u><em>Condition:</em></u><em>The bottom surfaces of piston and plunger at the same level.</em>

According to Pascal's law the pressure of a fluid is exerted equally in all directions against the walls of its container.

Mathematically:

\frac{F_i}{A_i} =\frac{F_o}{A_o}

putting respective values

\frac{F_i}{\pi\times r_i^2} =\frac{27000}{\pi\times r_o^2}

\frac{F_i}{\pi\times (6.3\times 10^{-3})^2} =\frac{27000}{\pi\times 0.125^2}

F_i=68.58\ N

(b)

<u><em>Condition:</em></u><em>The bottom surface of the output plunger is 1.30 m above that of the input piston.</em>

Given:

h=1.3\ m

Now,

P_i=P_o+\rho.g.h

\frac{F_i}{\pi\times (6.3\times 10^{-3})^2} =\frac{27000}{\pi\times 0.125^2} +830\times 9.8\times 1.3

F_i=69.903\ N

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