WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!

The aqueduct passes under Johnson Road in Lancaster through a siphon. The maximum capacity of the aqueduct is 350 m3/s. The heig

Mariulka [41]

Answer:

D ≈ 8.45 m

L ≈ 100.02 m

Explanation:

Given

Q = 350 m³/s (volumetric water flow rate passing through the stretch of channel, maximum capacity of the aqueduct)

y₁ - y₂ = h = 2.00 m (the height difference from the upper to the lower channels)

x = 100.00 m (distance between the upper and the lower channels)

We assume that:

the upper and the lower channels are at the same pressure (the atmospheric pressure).
the velocity of water in the upper channel is zero (v₁ = 0 m/s).
y₁ = 2.00 m (height of the upper channel)
y₂ = 0.00 m (height of the lower channel)
g = 9.81 m/s²
ρ = 1000 Kg/m³ (density of water)

We apply Bernoulli's equation as follows between the point 1 (the upper channel) and the point 2 (the lower channel):

P₁ + (ρ*v₁²/2) + ρ*g*y₁ = P₂ + (ρ*v₂²/2) + ρ*g*y₂

Plugging the known values into the equation and simplifying we get

Patm + (1000 Kg/m³*(0 m/s)²/2) + (1000 Kg/m³)*(9.81 m/s²)*(2 m) = Patm + (1000 Kg/m³*v₂²/2) + (1000 Kg/m³)*(9.81 m/s²)*(0 m)

⇒ v₂ = 6.264 m/s

then we apply the formula

Q = v*A ⇒ A = Q/v ⇒ A = Q/v₂

⇒ A = (350 m³/s)/(6.264 m/s)

⇒ A = 55.873 m²

then, we get the diameter of the pipe as follows

A = π*D²/4 ⇒ D = 2*√(A/π)

⇒ D = 2*√(55.873 m²/π)

⇒ D = 8.434 m ≈ 8.45 m

Now, the length of the pipe can be obtained as follows

L² = x² + h²

⇒ L² = (100.00 m)² + (2.00 m)²

⇒ L ≈ 100.02 m

6 0

2 years ago

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I want ti know how to study

arlik [135]

Answer:

Make sure everything is organized have a planner it can help

Get rid of all distractions

Listen to music if it helps you concentrate

Have your notes

Being willing to stay focus on what you are doing

Understand what you are doing

And most off all Be Happy and Remain Calm : )

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3 years ago

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Calculate the lowest energy (in ev) for an electron in an infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.

MA_775_DIABLO [31]

The lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

To find the answer, we have to know more about the infinite well.

<h3>What is the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well?</h3>

It is given that, the infinite well having a width of 0.050 mm.
We have the expression for energy of electron in an infinite well as,

$E_n=\frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}$

where;

$m=9.1*10^{-31}kg\\L=0.050*10^{-3}m\\h=6.63*10^{-34}Js\\n=1$

Thus, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is,

$E_1=\frac{(6.63*10^{-34})^2}{8*9.1*10^{-31}*(0.050*10^{-3})}=1.2*10^{-33}J$

Thus, we can conclude that, the lowest energy of electron in an infinite well is 1.2*10^-33J.

Learn more about the infinite well here:

brainly.com/question/20317353

#SPJ4

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How can scientists study the inner structure of an atom?

Arturiano [62]

A microscope is one way

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If you put a object in front of the mirror why does it appear the opposite way

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It is because that is how mirrors work, they reflect light, and since we see objects because we are seeing the light these objects reflect, what is reflected back by the mirror is what we see.

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2 years ago