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Ronch [10]
3 years ago
11

A simple pendulum takes 2.00 s to make one compete swing. If we now triple the length, how long will it take for one complete sw

ing
Physics
1 answer:
Nady [450]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

3.464 seconds.

Explanation:

We know that we can write the period (the time for a complete swing) of a pendulum as:

T = 2*\pi*\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}  }

Where:

\pi = 3.14

L is the length of the pendulum

g is the gravitational acceleration:

g = 9.8m/s^2

We know that the original period is of 2.00 s, then:

T = 2.00s

We can solve that for L, the original length:

2.00s = 2*3.14*\sqrt{\frac{L}{9.8m/s^2}  }\\\\\frac{2s}{2*3.14} = \sqrt{\frac{L}{9.8m/s^2}}\\\\(\frac{2s}{2*3.14})^2*9.8m/s^2 = L = 0.994m

So if we triple the length of the pendulum, we will have:

L' = 3*0.994m = 2.982m

The new period will be:

T = 2*3.14*\sqrt{\frac{2.982m}{9.8 m/s^2}  } = 3.464s

The new period will be 3.464 seconds.

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Answer:

Explanation:

a )

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angular velocity = 2π / T

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ω = 18.84 radian / s

b )

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I₁ / I₂ = ω₂ / ω₁

2 = ω₂ / ω

ω₂ = 2 ω

c )

(KE)initial = 1/2 I₁ ω²

(KE)final =  1/2 I₂ ω₂²

= 1/2 (I₁ / 2)  (2ω)²

=  I₁ ω²

c )

Change in rotational kinetic energy

=  I₁ ω² -  1/2 I₁ ω²

=  +  1/2 I₁ ω²

d )

This energy comes from the work done by centripetal force which is increased to increase the speed of rotation.

4 0
3 years ago
Help me please (* ̄(エ) ̄*)​
Len [333]

Answer:

1) Are always conservative

Explanation:

Elastic forces are always conservative.

Hope it helps you.

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3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How many minutes does light need to travel from the sun to Jupiter?
nydimaria [60]

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Mercury it will take 193.0 seconds(3.2 minutes)

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3 0
3 years ago
A 45.0 g hard-boiled egg moves on the end of a spring with force constant 25.0 N/m. Its initial displacement 0.500 m. A damping
leva [86]

Answer:

0.02896 kg/s

Explanation:

A_1 = Initial displacement = 0.5 m

A21 = Final displacement = 0.1 m

t = Time taken = 0.5 s

m = Mass of object = 45 g

Displacement is given by

x=Ae^{-\dfrac{b}{2m}t}cos(\omega t+\phi)

At maximum displacement

cos(\omega t+\phi)=1

\\\Rightarrow A_2=A_1e^{-\dfrac{b}{2m}t}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{A_1}{A_2}=e^{\dfrac{b}{2m}t}\\\Rightarrow ln\dfrac{A_1}{A_2}=\dfrac{b}{2m}t\\\Rightarrow b=\dfrac{2m}{t}\times ln\dfrac{A_1}{A_2}\\\Rightarrow b=\dfrac{2\times 0.045}{5}\times ln\dfrac{0.5}{0.1}\\\Rightarrow b=0.02896\ kg/s

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6 0
4 years ago
At which point in time does an object with the motion represented in the graph have an
mafiozo [28]

Answer:

4s.

Explanation:

Hello,

In this case, considering that the instantaneous acceleration is computed via the change in the velocity divided by the change in the time, at 4 s we can evidence that the instantaneous acceleration is -2m/s² since the initial velocity at t=0s is 8m/s and at t=4s the velocity is 0 m/s, meaning that such decrease accounts for a deceleration process which is represented by a negative acceleration, and the value is:

a=\frac{0m/s-8m/s}{4s-0s}\\ \\a=-2m/s^2

Best regards.

6 0
4 years ago
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