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svetlana [45]
3 years ago
12

If the man pushes with a force of 2000N and friction is 500N, what is the resultant force?

Physics
1 answer:
alexandr402 [8]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Explanation:

If the force of 2000 N is directed towards the right and the friction is directed towards the left, the 2000 N force is positive and the other is negative. To find the resultant force:

2000 - 500 = 1500 N to the right

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aliina [53]

Answer: the top one

Explanation: hope this helps

6 0
2 years ago
A 0.046 kg golf ball hit by a driver can accelerate from rest to 67 m/s in 1 ms while the driver is in contact with the ball. Ho
Flauer [41]

Answer:

Average force = 67 mn

Explanation:

Given:

Initial velocity u = 0 m/s

Final velocity v = 67 m/s

Time t = 1 ms = 0.001 sec.

Computation:

Using Momentum theory

Change in momentum  = F × Δt

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F × 0.001 = (67 - 0)/0.001

F= 67,000,000

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3 0
2 years ago
I need to find 1).a,b,c
Aleksandr [31]
Let's cut through the weeds and the trash
and get down to the real situation:

                  A stone is tossed straight up at  5.89 m/s .
                  Ignore air resistance.


Gravity slows down the speed of any rising object by  9.8 m/s every second.
So the stone (aka Billy-Bob-Joe) continues to rise for

                     (5.89 m/s / 9.8 m/s²)  =  0.6 seconds.

At that timer, he has run out of upward gas.  He is at the top
of his rise, he stops rising, and begins to fall.

His average speed on the way up is  (1/2) (5.89 + 0) = 2.945 m/s .

Moving for 0.6 seconds at an average speed of  2.945 m/s,
he topped out at

                    (2.945 m/s) (0.6 s) =  1.767 meters above the trampoline.

With no other forces other than gravity acting on him, it takes him
the same time to come down from the peak as it took to rise to it.

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5 0
3 years ago
PLEASE PLEASE HELP ME!
Vlad1618 [11]
B: heat is transferred as thermal energy by the interaction of moving particles
6 0
3 years ago
g (12 points) The time between incoming phone calls at a call center is a random variable with exponential density p(x) = 1 r e
rusak2 [61]

Answer:

(1)p(x)\geq 0\\(2)\int_{0}^{\infty} p(x) dx=0

Explanation:

A function f(x) is a Probability Density Function if it satisfies the following conditions:

(1)f(x)\geq 0\\(2)\int_{0}^{\infty} f(x) dx=0

Given the function:

p(x)=\dfrac{1}{r}e^{-x/r} \: on\: [0,\infty), where\:r=\dfrac{20}{ln(2)}

(1)p(x) is greater than zero since the range of exponents of the Euler's number will lie in [0,\infty).

(2)

\int_{0}^{\infty} p(x)=\int_{0}^{\infty} \dfrac{1}{r}e^{-x/r}\\=\dfrac{1}{r} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x/r}\\=-\dfrac{r}{r}\left[e^{-x/r}\right]_{0}^{\infty}\\=-\left[e^{-\infty/r}-e^{-0/r}\right]\\=-e^{-\infty}+e^{-0}\\SInce \: e^{-\infty} \rightarrow 0\\e^{-0}=1\\\int_{0}^{\infty} p(x)=1

The function p(x) satisfies the conditions for a probability density function.

6 0
3 years ago
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