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dimulka [17.4K]

3 years ago

10

State the reason why the magnetic field strength of a magnet is greatest at the poles

1 answer:

icang [17]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

As shown above, the magnetic field is strongest near to the poles of the magnet were the lines of flux are more closely spaced. The general direction for the magnetic flux flow is from the North ( N ) to the South ( S ) pole.

Explanation:

please give me brainlist and follow

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_______ are nonmetals that react with metals to form salts.

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Eddi Din [679]

Answer:

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Explanation:

Additional information:

<em>The ball has charge </em> $-q_0$ <em>, and the ring has positive charge </em> $+Q$ <em> distributed uniformly along its circumference. </em>

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Therefore, the force on the ball with charge $-q_0$ is

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and according to Newton's second law

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substituting $F$ we get:

$- \dfrac{kq_0Qz}{(z^2+a^2)^{3/2}}=m\dfrac{d^2z}{dz^2}$

rearranging we get:

$m\dfrac{d^2z}{dz^2}+ \dfrac{kq_0Qz}{(z^2+a^2)^{3/2}}=0$

Now we use the approximation that

$z^2+a^2\approx a^2$ <em>(we use this approximation instead of the original </em> $d^2+a^2\approx a^2$ <em> since </em> $z$ <em>, our assumption still holds )</em>

and get

$m\dfrac{d^2z}{dz^2}+ \dfrac{kq_0Qz}{(a^2)^{3/2}}=0$

$m\dfrac{d^2z}{dz^2}+ \dfrac{kq_0Qz}{a^{3}}=0$

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$m\dfrac{d^2z}{dz^2}+kz=0$

where

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is the frequency of oscillation. Applying this to our equation we get:

$m\dfrac{d^2z}{dz^2}+ \dfrac{kq_0Q}{a^{3}}z=0\\\\m=m\\\\k= \dfrac{kq_0Q}{a^{3}}$

$\boxed{\omega = \sqrt{\dfrac{kq_0Q}{ma^3} }}$

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