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skad [1K]
3 years ago
8

Explain the force of air resistance depends on an objects speed

Physics
1 answer:
Monica [59]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

more massive objects fall faster than less massive objects because they are acted upon by a larger force of gravity

Explanation:

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OLEGan [10]

Answer:

A. Yard

Explanation:

Should be correct lol :)

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A single-phase 60-Hz overhead power line is symmetrically supported on a horizontal cross arm. Spacing between the centers of th
pentagon [3]

Complete question is;

A single-phase 60-Hz overhead power line is symmetrically supported on a horizontal cross arm. Spacing between the centers of the conductors acing between the centers of the conductors (say, a and b) is 2.5 m. A telephone line is also symmetrically supported on a horizontal cross arm 1.8 m directly below the power line. Spacing between the centers of these conductors (say, c and d) is 1.0 m.

The mutual inductance per unit length between circuit a-b and circuit c-d is given as 4 x 10^(-7) ln √((D_ad × D_bc)/(D_ac × D_bd)) H/m

where, for example, D_ad denotes the distance in meters between conductors a and d.

a. Hence, compute the mutual inductance per kilometer between the power line and the telephone line.

b. Find the 60-Hz voltage per kilometer induced in the telephone line when the power line carries 150 A

Answer:

A) M = 1.01 × 10^(-4) H/km

B) v_cd = 5.712 V/km

Explanation:

A) From the distances given in the question, we can deduce that;

D_ac = √(((2.5/2) - (1/2))² + 1.8²)

D_ac = 1.95 m

Also;

D_ad = √(((2.5/2) + (1/2))² + 1.8²)

D_ad = 2.51 m

I_a and I_b are put of phase by 180°. Thus, due to a and b, the flux linkages to c and d is given as;

φ_cd = 4 x 10^(-7)I_a( ln (2.51/1.95))

Mutual inductance per km is given as;

M = φ_cd/I_a

Thus;

M = 4 x 10^(-7)( ln (2.51/1.95))

M = 1.01 × 10^(-7) H/m

Per km;

M = 1.01 × 10^(-7) × 1000

M = 1.01 × 10^(-4) H/km

B) voltage per km is gotten by;

v_cd = ωMI

Now, ω = 2πf = 2π × 60 = 377 rad/s

Thus;

v_cd = 377 × 1.01 × 10^(-4) × 150

v_cd = 5.712 V/km

5 0
3 years ago
Atoms with many electron shells will let go of their electrons more easily than those with fewer shells.
Anna007 [38]

True

The more the number of shells will let go of their outer electrons more easily because the effective nuclear charge on the outer (valence) electrons will be lower. This is called 'shielding', the outer electrons will be shielded from the nucleus by the inner electrons.

Hope this Helps

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A wall clock has a minute hand with a length of 0.55 m and an hour hand with a length of 0.26 m. Take the center of the clock as
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

The magnitude of the acceleration of the tip of the minute hand of the clock 1.675\times10^{-6}\ m/s^2.

Explanation:

Given that,

Length of minute hand = 0.55 m

Length of hour hand = 0.26 m

The time taken by the minute hand to complete one revelation is

T= 3600\ sec

We need to calculate the angular frequency

Using formula of angular frequency

\omega=\dfrac{2\pi}{T}

Put the value into the formula

\omega=\dfrac{2\pi}{3600}

\omega=0.001745\ rad/s

We need to calculate the magnitude of the acceleration of the tip of the minute hand of the clock

Using formula of acceleration

a=r\omega^2

Put the value into the formula

a=0.55\times(0.001745)^2

a=1.675\times10^{-6}\ m/s^2

Hence, The magnitude of the acceleration of the tip of the minute hand of the clock 1.675\times10^{-6}\ m/s^2.

3 0
3 years ago
A high jumper jumps 2.04 m. If the jumper has a mass of 67 kg, what is his gravitational potential energy at the highest point i
Mariulka [41]

Answer: 1339.5 joules

Explanation:

Gravitational potential energy, GPE is the energy possessed by the jumper as he moves against gravity.

Thus, GPE = Mass m x Acceleration due to gravity g x Height h

Since Mass = 67kg

g = 9.8m/s^2

h = 2.04 metres

Thus, GPE = 67kg x 9.8m/s^2 x 2.04m

GPE = 1339.5 joules

Thus, the gravitational potential energy at the highest point is 1339.5 joules

3 0
3 years ago
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