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Tanzania [10]
2 years ago
14

Please help It is Anatomy and Phys

Physics
2 answers:
kap26 [50]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the last time i had my tempature taken was at disney prings about a week ago -_- they used one of those gun things that dont touch u and the SHOVED me forward so i guess i was fine

Explanation:

zaharov [31]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

thermometer

Explanation:

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In the equation below, the mass of the helium (He) atom is ________ the mass of the hydrogen (H) atoms combined.
Lady bird [3.3K]
May I ask, which equation are we referring to again?
7 0
3 years ago
3. Magnetite is <br>a) Natural magnet <br>(b)Artificial magnet <br>(c) Not a magnet ​
andrey2020 [161]

\huge \bold \red  {Aɴswᴇʀ}

<em>Magnetite is a Natural magnet</em>

8 0
2 years ago
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A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of radius R2 around a spherical planet of radius R1 made of a material with density
Anit [1.1K]

Answer: The gravitational force Fg exerted on the orbit by the planet is Fg = G 4/3πr3rhom/ (R1 + d+ R2)^2

Explanation:

Gravitational Force Fg = GMm/r2----1

Where G is gravitational constant

M Mass of the planet, m mass of the orbit and r is the distance between the masses.

Since the circular orbit move around the planet, it means they do not touch each other.

The distance between two points on the circumference of the two massesb is given by d, while the distance from the radius of each mass to the circumferences are R1 and R2 from the question.

Total distance r= (R1 + d + R2)^2---2

Recall, density rho =

Mass M/Volume V

Hence, mass of planet = rho × V

But volume of a sphere is 4/3πr3

Therefore,

Mass M of planet = rho × 4/3πr3

=4/3πr3rho in kg

From equation 1 and 2

Fg = G 4/3πr3rhom/ (R1 + d+ R2)^2

6 0
3 years ago
A 150 N boy rides a 60 N bicycle a total of 200 m at a constant speed. The frictional force against the forward motion of the bi
soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

W = 7000 J

Explanation:

To solve this problem we use that the speed of the bicycle is constant, therefore its acceleration is zero

            F -fr = 0

            F = fr

where F is the force applied by the child

Work is defined by

           W = F. x

           W = F x cos θ

in this case the child's force is parallel to the movement, therefore the angle is zero and cos 0 = 1

           

let's calculate

           W = 35 200

           W = 7000 J

8 0
3 years ago
In a physics laboratory experiment, a coil with 200 turns enclosing an area of 13.1 cm2 is rotated during the time interval 3.10
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

A)\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9}

B)\Phi=0 Wb

C)emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

Explanation:

Given that:

  • no. of turns i the coil, n=200
  • area of the coil, a=13.1 \times 10^{-4}\,m^2
  • time interval of rotation, t=3.1\times 10^{-2}\,s
  • intensity of magnetic field, B=6.4\times 10^{-5}\,T

(A)

Initially the coil area is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

So, magnetic flux is given as:

\Phi=B.a\,cos \theta..................................(1)

\theta is the angle between the area vector and the magnetic field lines. Area vector is always perpendicular to the area given. In this case area vector is parallel to the magnetic field.

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 0^{\circ}

\Phi=83.84\times 10^{-9} Wb

(B)

In this case the plane area is parallel to the magnetic field i.e. the area vector is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

∴  \theta=90^{\circ}

From eq. (1)

\Phi=6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}\, cos 90^{\circ}

\Phi=0 Wb

(C)

According to the Faraday's Law we have:

emf=n\frac{B.a}{t}

emf=\frac{200\times 6.4\times 10^{-5}\times 13.1 \times 10^{-4}}{3.1\times 10^{-2}}

emf=5.4090\times 10^{-4}V

7 0
3 years ago
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