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solong [7]
3 years ago
12

what is required to cause a body of mass 500g to accelerate uniformly from rest across a smooth horizontal surface so that it wi

ll cover a distance of 20 tometre in 4 seconds .​
Physics
1 answer:
Y_Kistochka [10]3 years ago
8 0

A constant force of 1.25N

Explanation:

This is a kinematics problem.

First find acceleration,

then use F = ma to find force.

Given:

mass = .5kg

delta x = 20m

t = 4s

a = ?

Friction = 0

From the kinematics equations:

delta x = Vi + (1/2)at^2

Plug in terms that are given:

20m = 0 + (1/2)a(4^2)

(2*20m)/(16s^2) = a

40m/(16s^2)= 2.5m/s^2

Now use F = ma to find force exerted on object.

F = (0.5kg)*(2.5m/s^2)

F = 1.25N

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A. 14 meters/second to the west
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A rock with density 1900 kg/m3 is suspended from the lower end of a light string. When the rock is in air, the tension in the st
wel

Answer:

the tension T2 when the rock is completely immersed is T2 =  29.05 N

Explanation:

from Newton's second law

F= m*a

where F= force , m= mass , a= acceleration

when the rock is suspended ,a=0 since it is at rest. Then

T1 - m*g = 0 , T1= tension when suspended in air , g= gravity

assuming constant density of the rock

m= ρ rock *V , where  ρ rock = density of the rock , V= volume

thus

T1= m*g = ρ rock *g*V

V=  T1/(ρ rock *g)

when the rock is submerged in oil , it receives an upward force that equals the weight of the volume of displaced oil (V displaced). Since it is completely submerged the volume displaced is the volume of the rock V=Vdisplaced  

When the rock is at rest , then

F= m*a=0

T2 + ρ oil *g*V displaced - ρ rock *g*V  =0

T2 = ρ rock *g*V - ρ oil *g*V = g*V (ρ rock - ρ oil)

T2 = g*V (ρ rock - ρ oil) = T1/(ρ rock *g) *g * (ρ rock - ρ oil)

T2 = T1 * (ρ rock - ρ oil)/ρ rock

replacing values

T2 = 48 N * (1900 kg/m3- 750 kg/m3)/ 1900 kg/m3 = 29.05 N

T2 =  29.05 N

3 0
3 years ago
At each corner of a square of side l there are point charges of magnitude Q, 2Q, 3Q, and 4Q.What is the magnitude and direction
bogdanovich [222]

Answer:

magnitude of force on charge 2Q  = \frac{KQ^{2} }{I^{2} }

Direction of force on charge = 61 ⁰

Explanation:

The magnitude on the force on the charge can be evaluated by finding the net force acting on the charge 2Q  i.e x-component of the net force and the y-component of the net force

║F║ = \sqrt{f_{x}^{2} + f_{y}^{2}    }  =  after considering the forces coming from Q, 3Q and 4Q AND APPLYING COULOMBS LAW

magnitude of force acting on 2Q = \frac{KQ^{2} }{I^{2} }

The direction of the force on charge 2Q is calculated as

tan ∅ = \frac{f_{y} }{f_{x} } = 1.8284

therefore ∅ = tan^{-1}  1.8284

= 61⁰

3 0
3 years ago
A pendulum has 895 J of potential energy at the highest point of its swing. How much kinetic energy will it have at the bottom o
LuckyWell [14K]

Newton's law of conservation states that energy of an isolated system  remains a constant. It can neither be created nor destroyed but can be transformed  from one form to the other.

Implying the above law of conservation of energy in the case of pendulum we can conclude that at the bottom of the swing the entire potential energy gets converted to kinetic energy. Also the potential energy is zero at this point.

Mathematically also potential energy is represented as

Potential energy= mgh

Where m is the mass of the pendulum.

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the height from the bottom z the ground.

At the bottom of the swing,the height is zero, hence the potential energy is also zero.

The kinetic energy is represented mathematically as

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At the bottom the pendulum has the maximum velocity. Hence the kinetic energy is maximum at the bottom.

Also as it has been mentioned energy can neither be created nor destroyed hence the entire potential energy is converted to kinetic energy at the bottom and would be equivalent to 895 J.

7 0
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ratelena [41]

Answer:Near-field communication

Explanation:

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