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3 years ago

Can someone please help me with this. Thank you. Ill mark you as brainly.

Engineering

1 answer:

Contact [7]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

5, 6, 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation:

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Which physical quantity measures fraction of the input energy a machine actually concerts into output energy ?

Dvinal [7]

The answer is Kinetic Power.

4 0

3 years ago

Three tool materials (high-speed steel, cemented carbide, and ceramic) are to be compared for the same turning operation on a ba

Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

Among all three tools, the ceramic tool is taking the least time for the production of a batch, however, machining from the HSS tool is taking the highest time.

Explanation:

The optimum cutting speed for the minimum cost

$V_{opt}= \frac{C}{\left[\left(T_c+\frac{C_e}{C_m}\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}-1\right)\right]^n}\;\cdots(i)$

Where,

C,n = Taylor equation parameters

$T_h$ =Tool changing time in minutes

$C_e$ =Cost per grinding per edge

$C_m$ = Machine and operator cost per minute

On comparing with the Taylor equation $VT^n=C$ ,

Tool life,

$T= \left[ \left(T_t+\frac{C_e}{C_m}\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}-1\right)\right]}\;\cdots(ii)$

Given that,

Cost of operator and machine time $=\$40/hr=\$0.667/min$

Batch setting time = 2 hr

Part handling time: $T_h=2.5$ min

Part diameter: $D=73 mm$ $=73\times 10^{-3} m$

Part length: $l=250 mm=250\times 10^{-3} m$

Feed: $f=0.30 mm/rev= 0.3\times 10^{-3} m/rev$

Depth of cut: $d=3.5 mm$

For the HSS tool:

Tool cost is $20 and it can be ground and reground 15 times and the grinding= $2/grind.

So, $C_e=$ $\$20/15+2=\$3.33/edge$

Tool changing time, $T_t=3$ min.

$C= 80 m/min$

$n=0.130$

(a) From equation (i), cutting speed for the minimum cost:

$V_{opt}= \frac {80}{\left[ \left(3+\frac{3.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.13}-1\right)\right]^{0.13}}$

$\Rightarrow 47.7$ m/min

(b) From equation (ii), the tool life,

$T=\left(3+\frac{3.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.13}-1\right)\right]}$

$\Rightarrow T=53.4$ min

(c) Cycle time: $T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

where,

$T_m=$ Machining time for one part

$n_p=$ Number of pieces cut in one tool life

$T_m= \frac{l}{fN}$ min, where $N=\frac{V_{opt}}{\pi D}$ is the rpm of the spindle.

$\Rightarrow T_m= \frac{\pi D l}{fV_{opt}}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 47.7}=4.01 min/pc$

So, the number of parts produced in one tool life

$n_p=\frac {T}{T_m}$

$\Rightarrow n_p=\frac {53.4}{4.01}=13.3$

Round it to the lower integer

$\Rightarrow n_p=13$

So, the cycle time

$T_c=2.5+4.01+\frac{3}{13}=6.74$ min/pc

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times6.74+\frac{3.33}{13}=\$4.75/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch= Sum of setup time and production time for one batch

$=2\times60+ {50\times 6.74}{50}=457 min=7.62 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times4.01}{457}=0.4387=43.87\%$

Now, for the cemented carbide tool:

Cost per edge,

$C_e=$ $\$8/6=\$1.33/edge$

Tool changing time, $T_t=1min$

$C= 650 m/min$

$n=0.30$

(a) Cutting speed for the minimum cost:

$V_{opt}= \frac {650}{\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.3}-1\right)\right]^{0.3}}=363m/min$ [from(i)]

(b) Tool life,

$T=\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.3}-1\right)\right]=7min$ [from(ii)]

(c) Cycle time:

$T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

$T_m= \frac{\pi D l}{fV_{opt}}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 363}=0.53min/pc$

$n_p=\frac {7}{0.53}=13.2$

$\Rightarrow n_p=13$ [ nearest lower integer]

So, the cycle time

$T_c=2.5+0.53+\frac{1}{13}=3.11 min/pc$

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times3.11+\frac{1.33}{13}=\$2.18/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch $=2\times60+ {50\times 3.11}{50}=275.5 min=4.59 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times0.53}{275.5}=0.0962=9.62\%$

Similarly, for the ceramic tool:

$C_e=$ $\$10/6=\$1.67/edge$

$T_t-1min$

$C= 3500 m/min$

$n=0.6$

(a) Cutting speed:

$V_{opt}= \frac {3500}{\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.67}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.6}-1\right)\right]^{0.6}}$

$\Rightarrow V_{opt}=2105 m/min$

(b) Tool life,

$T=\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.67}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.6}-1\right)\right]=2.33 min$

(c) Cycle time:

$T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 2105}=0.091 min/pc$

$n_p=\frac {2.33}{0.091}=25.6$

$\Rightarrow n_p=25 pc/tool\; life$

So,

$T_c=2.5+0.091+\frac{1}{25}=2.63 min/pc$

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times2.63+\frac{1.67}{25}=$1.82/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch

$=2\times60+ {50\times 2.63}=251.5 min=4.19 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times0.091}{251.5}=0.0181=1.81\%$

3 0

4 years ago

a valueable preserved biological specimen is weighed by suspeding it from a spring scale. it weighs 0.45 N when it is suspendedi

Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

ρ=962.16kg/m^3

Explanation:

The first thing we must do to solve is to find the mass of the specimen using the weight equation

w = mg

m=w/g

m=0.45/9.81=0.04587kg

To find the volume we must make a free-body diagram on the specimen, taking into account that the weight will go down and the buoyant force up, and the result of that subtraction will be the measured weight value (0.081N).

We must bear in mind that the principle of archimedes indicates that the buoyant force is given by

F = ρgV

where V is the specimen volume and ρ is the density of alcohol = 789kg / m ^ 3

considering the above we have the following equation

0.081=0.45-(789)(9.81m/s^2)V

solving for V

V=(0.081-0.45)/(-789x9.81)

V=4.7673x10^-5m^3

finally we found the density

ρ=m/v

ρ=0.04587kg/4.7673x10^-5m^3

ρ=962.16kg/m^3

4 0

4 years ago

For a fluid with a Prandtl Number of 1000.0, the hydrodynamic layer is thinner than the thermal boundary layers. a) True b) Fals

kvv77 [185]

Answer:

(b)False

Explanation:

Given:

Prandtl number(Pr) =1000.

We know that $Pr=\dfrac{\nu }{\alpha }$

Where $\nu$ is the molecular diffusivity of momentum

$\alpha$ is the molecular diffusivity of heat.

Prandtl number(Pr) can also be defined as

$Pr=\left (\dfrac{\delta }{\delta _t}\right )^3$

Where $\delta$ is the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness and $\delta_t$ is the thermal boundary layer thickness.

So if Pr>1 then hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness will be greater than thermal boundary layer thickness.

In given question Pr>1 so hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness will be greater than thermal boundary layer thickness.

So hydrodynamic layer will be thicker than the thermal boundary layer.

8 0

4 years ago

The Acme tool is aligned to the work with: A. A square B. The eye C. An Acme tool gage D. A center gage

kotegsom [21]

Answer:

Explanation:

with the help of an acme tool we measure the pitch of a screw thread it is used as reference for finding the pitch of the thread it is also called an inspection tool is aligned to work with an acme tool gage it is also used for gage the internal and external threaded product. it is also used for grinding and setting tools it is mainly work 29° thread angle

8 0

4 years ago