Hi im ***ar and im doing sculptural but what should it be about star wars or Marvel

Compared to 15 mph on a dry road, about how much longer will it take for

Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

8 to 10 times

Explanation:

For dry road

u= 15 mph ( 1 mph = 0.44 m/s)

u= 6.7 m/s

Let take coefficient of friction( μ) of dry road is 0.7

So the de acceleration a = μ g

a= 0.7 x 10 m/s ² ( g=10 m/s ²)

a= 7 m/s ²

We know that

v= u - a t

Final speed ,v=0

0 = 6.7 - 7 x t

t= 0.95 s

For snow road

μ = 0.4

de acceleration a = μ g

a = 0.4 x 10 = 4 m/s ²

u= 30 mph= 13.41 m/s

v= u - a t

Final speed ,v=0

0 = 30 - 4 x t'

t'=7.5 s

t'=7.8 t

We can say that it will take 8 to 10 times more time as compare to dry road for stopping the vehicle.

8 to 10 times

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A double-threaded Acme stub screw of 2-in. major diameter is used in a jack having a plain thrust collar of 2.5-in. mean diamete

Temka [501]

This is the answer for the question

6 0

3 years ago

.a. What size vessel holds 2 kg water at 80°C such that 70% is vapor? What are the pressure and internal energy? b. A 1.6 m3 ves

vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

Part a: The volume of vessel is 4.7680 $m^3$ and total internal energy is 3680 kJ.

Part b: The quality of the mixture is 90.3% or 0.903, temperature is 120 °C and total internal energy is 4660 kJ.

Explanation:

Part a:

As per given data

m=2 kg

T=80 °C =80+273=353 K

Dryness=70% vapour =0.7

<em>From the steam tables at 80 °C</em>

Specific volume of saturated vapours=v_g=3.40527 $m^3/kg$

Specific volume of saturated liquid=v_f=0.00102 $m^3/kg$

Now the relation of total specific volume for a specific dryness value is given as

$v=v_f+x(v_g-v_f)$

Substituting the values give

$v=v_f+x(v_g-v_f)\\v=0.00102+0.7(3.40527-0.00102)\\v_f=2.38399 m^3/kg$

Now the volume of vessel is given as

$v=\frac{V}{m}\\V=v \times m\\V=2.38399 \times 2\\V=4.7680 m^3$

So the volume of vessel is 4.7680 $m^3$ .

Similarly for T=80 and dryness ratio of 0.7 from the table of steam

Pressure=P=47.4 kPa

Specific internal energy is given as u=1840 kJ/kg

So the total internal energy is given as

$u=\frac{U}{m}\\U=u \times m\\U=1840 \times 2\\U=3680 kJ$

The total internal energy is 3680 kJ.

So the volume of vessel is 4.7680 $m^3$ and total internal energy is 3680 kJ.

Part b

Volume of vessel is given as 1.6

mass is given as 2 kg

Pressure is given as 0.2 MPa or 200 kPa

Now the specific volume is given as

$v=\frac{V}{m}\\v=\frac{1.6}{2}\\v=0.8 m^3/kg$

So from steam tables for Pressure=200 kPa and specific volume as 0.8 gives

Temperature=T=120 °C

Quality=x=0.903 ≈ 90.3%

Specific internal energy =u=2330 kJ/kg

The total internal energy is given as

$u=\frac{U}{m}\\U=u \times m\\U=2330 \times 2\\U=4660 kJ$

So the quality of the mixture is 90.3% or 0.903, temperature is 120 °C and total internal energy is 4660 kJ.

5 0

3 years ago

A sheet of steel 3-mm thick has nitrogen atomospheres on both sides at 900 C and is permitted to achieve a steady-state di usion

kati45 [8]

Answer:

$X_B = 1.8 \times 10^{-3} m = 1.8 mm$

Explanation:

Given data:

Diffusion constant for nitrogen is $= 1.85\times 10^{-10} m^2/s$

Diffusion flux $= 1.0\times 10^{-7} kg/m^2-s$

concentration of nitrogen at high presuure = 2 kg/m^3

location on which nitrogen concentration is 0.5 kg/m^3 ......?

from fick's first law

$J = D \frac{C_A C_B}{X_A X_B}$

Take C_A as point on which nitrogen concentration is 2 kg/m^3

$x_B = X_A + D\frac{C_A -C_B}{J}$

Assume X_A is zero at the surface

$X_B = 0 + ( 12\times 10^{-11} ) \frac{2-0.5}{1\times 10^{-7}}$

$X_B = 1.8 \times 10^{-3} m = 1.8 mm$

4 0

3 years ago

X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.

Lemur [1.5K]

It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
#SPJ1

4 0

2 years ago