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Alexxx [7]
3 years ago
14

Planet 1 orbits Star 1 and Planet 2 orbits Star 2 in circular orbits of the same radius. However, the orbital period of Planet 1

is longer than the orbital period of Planet 2. What could explain this
Physics
1 answer:
hichkok12 [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The mass of Star 2 is Greater than the mass of Start 1. (This, if we suppose the masses of the planets are much smaller than the masses of the stars)

Explanation:

First of all, let's draw a free body diagram of a planet orbiting a star. (See attached picture).

From the free body diagram we can build an equation with the sum of forces between the start and the planet.

\sum F=ma

We know that the force between two bodies due to gravity is given by the following equation:

F_{g} = G\frac{m_{1}m_{2}}{r^{2}}

in this case we will call:

M= mass of the star

m= mass of the planet

r = distance between the star and the planet

G= constant of gravitation.

so:

F_{g} =G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}

Also, if the planet describes a circular orbit, the centripetal force is given by the following equation:

F_{c}=ma_{c}

where the centripetal acceleration is given by:

a_{c}=\omega ^{2}r

where

\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}

Where T is the period, and \omega is the angular speed of the planet, so:

a_{c} = ( \frac{2\pi}{T})^{2}r

or:

a_{c}=\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}}

so:

F_{c}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

so now we can do the sum of forces:

\sum F=ma

F_{g}=ma_{c}

G\frac{Mm}{r^{2}}=m(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

in this case we can get rid of the mass of the planet, so we get:

G\frac{M}{r^{2}}=(\frac{4\pi^{2}r}{T^{2}})

we can now solve this for T^{2} so we get:

T^{2} = \frac{4\pi ^{2}r^{3}}{GM}

We could take the square root to both sides of the equation but that would not be necessary. Now, the problem tells us that the period of planet 1 is longer than the period of planet 2, so we can build the following inequality:

T_{1}^{2}>T_{2}^{2}

So let's see what's going on there, we'll call:

M_{1}= mass of Star 1

M_{2}= mass of Star 2

So:

\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{1}}>\frac{4\pi^{2}r^{3}}{GM_{2}}

we can get rid of all the constants so we end up with:

\frac{1}{M_{1}}>\frac{1}{M_{2}}

and let's flip the inequality, so we get:

M_{2}>M_{1}

This means that for the period of planet 1 to be longer than the period of planet 2, we need the mass of star 2 to be greater than the mass of star 1. This makes sense because the greater the mass of the star is, the greater the force it applies on the planet is. The greater the force, the faster the planet should go so it stays in orbit. The faster the planet moves, the smaller the period is. In this case, planet 2 is moving faster, therefore it's period is shorter.

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Answer:

All electrons are negative(-) charged

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2 years ago
The angular speed of the hour hand of a clock, in rad/min, is:___________
lapo4ka [179]

The angular speed is defined as:

<h2>                                      ω=\frac{2\pi}{T}</h2>

        where

                                     T=12*60=720min

                                     \omega=\frac{2\pi}{720}

                                     \omega=4.4**10^{-3} rad/min

4 0
3 years ago
An ideal gas Carnot cycle with air in a piston cylinder has a high temperature of 1000 K and a heat rejection at 400 K. During t
vivado [14]

Answer:

W / n = - 9133 J / mol, W / n = 3653 J / mol , e = 0.600

Explanation:

The Carnot cycle is described by

      e= 1 - Q_{c} / Q_{H} = 1 - T_{c} / T_{H}

     

In this case they indicate that the final volume is

         V = 3V₀

In the part of the heat absorption cycle from the source is an isothermal expansion

         W = n RT ln (V₀ / V)

         W / n = 8.314 1000 ln (1/3)

          W / n = - 9133 J / mol

During the part of the isothermal compression in contact with the cold focus, as in a machine the relation of volumes is maintained in this part is compressed three times

            W / n = 8.314 400 (3)

           W / n = 3653 J / mol

The efficiency of the cycle is

            e = 1- 400/1000

            e = 0.600

6 0
3 years ago
A 4.00-g bullet, traveling horizontally with a velocity of magnitude 400 m/s, is fired into a wooden block with mass 0.650 kg ,
Maru [420]

Answer:

a) Coefficient of kinetic friction between block and surface = 0.12

b) Decrease in kinetic energy of the bullet = 247.8 J

c) Kinetic energy of the block at the instant after the bullet passes through it = 0.541 J

Explanation:

Given,

Mass of bullet = 4.00 g = 0.004 kg

Initial velocity of the bullet = 400 m/s

Mass of wooden block = 0.65 kg

Initial velocity of the wooden block = 0 m/s (since it was initially at rest)

Final velocity of the bullet = 190 m/s

Distance slid through by the block after the collision = d = 72.0 cm = 0.72 m

Let the velocity of the wooden block after collision be v

According to the law of conservation of momentum,

Momentum before collision = Momentum after collision

Momentum before collision = (Momentum of bullet before collision) + (Momentum of wooden block before collision)

Momentum of bullet before collision = (0.004×400) = 1.6 kgm/s

Momentum of wooden block before collision = (0.65)(0) = 0 kgm/s

Momentum after collision = (Momentum of bullet after collision) + (Momentum of wooden block after collision)

Momentum of bullet after collision = (0.004×190) = 0.76 kgm/s

Momentum of wooden block after collision = (0.65)(v) = (0.65v) kgm/s

Momentum balance gives

1.6 + 0 = 0.76 + 0.65v

0.65v = 1.6 - 0.76 = 0.84

v = (0.84/0.65)

v = 1.29 m/s

The velocity of the wooden block after collision = 1.29 m/s

To obtain the coefficient of kinetic friction between block and surface, we will apply the work-energy theorem.

The work-energy theorem states that the work done in moving the block from one point to another is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the block between these two points.

The points to consider are the point when the block starts moving (immediately after collision) and when it stops as a result of frictional force.

Mathematically,

W = ΔK.E

W = workdone by the frictional force in stopping the wooden block (since there is no other horizontal force acting on the block)

W = -F.d (minus sign because the frictional force opposes motion)

d = Distance slid through by the block after the collision = 0.72 m

F = Frictional force = μN

where N = normal reaction of the surface on the wooden block and it is equal to the weight of the block.

N = W = mg

F = μmg

W = - μmg × d = (-μ)(0.65)(9.8) × 0.72 = (-4.59μ) J

ΔK.E = (final kinetic energy of the block) - (initial kinetic energy of the block)

Final kinetic energy of the block = 0 J (since the block comes to a rest)

(Initial kinetic energy of the block) = (1/2)(0.65)(1.29²) = 0.541 J

ΔK.E = 0 - 0.541 = - 0.541 J

W = ΔK.E

-4.59μ = -0.541

μ = (0.541/4.59)

μ = 0.12

b) The decrease in kinetic energy of the bullet

(Decrease in kinetic energy of the bullet) = (Kinetic energy of the bullet before collision) - (Kinetic energy of the bullet after collision)

Kinetic energy of the bullet before collision = (1/2)(0.004)(400²) = 320 J

Kinetic energy of the bullet after collision = (1/2)(0.004)(190²) = 72.2 J

Decrease in kinetic energy of the bullet = 320 - 72.2 = 247.8 J

c) Kinetic energy of the block at the instant after the bullet passes through it = (1/2)(0.65)(1.29²) = 0.541 J

Hope this Helps!!!

4 0
2 years ago
a 1010 W radiant heater is constructed to operate at 115 V. (a) What is the current in the heater when the unit is operating?
scZoUnD [109]

Answer:

<h2>8.78 Amps</h2>

Explanation:

Given data:

power rating of the heater P= 1010 W

voltage of the heater V= 115 volts

current taken by the heater I= ?

We can apply the power formula to solve for the current in the heater

i.e P= IV

Making I the current subject of formula we have

I= P/V

Substituting our given data into the expression for I we have

I=1010/115= 8.78 A

<h2 /><h2><em>Hence the current when the unit/heater is operating is 8.78 Amp</em></h2>
5 0
2 years ago
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