Find the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes with 8 volts applied?

You are hitting a nail with a hammer (mass of hammer =1.8lb) the initial velocity of the hammer is 50 mph (73.33 ft/sec). The ti

Archy [21]

Answer:

The nail exerts a force of 573.88 Pounds on the Hammer in positive j direction.

Explanation:

Since we know that the force is the rate at which the momentum of an object changes.

Mathematically $\overrightarrow{F}=\frac{\Delta \overrightarrow{p}}{\Delta t}$

The momentum of any body is defines as $\overrightarrow{p}=mass\times \overrightarrow{v}$

In the above problem we see that the moumentum of the hammer is reduced to zero in 0.023 seconds thus the force on the hammer is calculated using the above relations as

$\overrightarrow{F}=\frac{m(\overrightarrow{v_{f}}-\overrightarrow{v_{i}})}{\Delta t}$

$\overrightarrow{F}=\frac{m(0-(-73.33)}{0.23}=\frac{1.8\times 73.33}{0.23}=573.88Pounds$

6 0

3 years ago

What is the metal removal rate when a 2 in-diameter hole 3.5 in deep is drilled in 1020 steel at cutting speed of 120 fpm with a

Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

a) the metal removal rate is 14.4 in³/min

b) the cutting time is 0.98 min

Explanation:

Given the data from the question

first we find the rpm for the spindle of the drilling tool, using the equation

Ns = 12V/πD

V is the cutting speed(120 fpm) and D is the diameter of the hole( 2 in)

so we substitute

Ns = 12 × 120 / π2

Ns = 1440 / 6.2831

Ns = 229.18 rmp

Now we find the metal removal rate using the equation

MRR = (πD²/4) Fr × Ns

Fr is the feed rate( 0.02 ipr ),

so we substitute

MRR = ((π × 2²)/4) × 0.02 × 229.18

MRR = 14.3998 ≈ 14.4 in³/min

Therefore the metal removal rate is 14.4 in³/min

Next we find the allowance for approach of the tip of the drill

A = D/2

A = 2/2

= 1 in

now find the time required to drill the hole

Tm = (L + A) / (Fr × Ns)

Lis the the depth of the hole( 3.5 in)

so we substitute our values

Tm = (3.5 + 1) / (0.02 × 229.18 )

Tm = 4.5 / 4.5836

Tm = 0.98 min

Therefore the cutting time is 0.98 min

8 0

2 years ago

An L2 steel strap having a thickness of 0.125 in. and a width of 2 in. is bent into a circular arc of radius 600 in. Determine t

lesya692 [45]

Answer:

the maximum bending stress in the strap is 3.02 ksi

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

steel strap thickness = 0.125 in

width = 2 in

circular arc radius = 600 in

we know that, standard value of modulus of elasticity of L2 steel is; E = 29 × 10³ ksi;

Now, using simple theory of bending

1/p = M/EI

solve for M

Mp = EI

M = EI / p ----- let this be equation 1

The maximum bending stress in the strap is;

σ = Mc / I -------let this be equation 2

substitute equation 1 into 2

σ = ( EI / p)c / I

σ = ( c/p )E

so we substitute in our values

σ = ( (0.125/2) / 600 )29 × 10³

σ = 0.00010416666 × 29 × 10³

σ = 3.02 ksi

Therefore, the maximum bending stress in the strap is 3.02 ksi

3 0

2 years ago

Tech A states that friction brakes lose energy as heat. Tech B states that a brake-by-wire system converts this energy into usef

hjlf

Tech A.......................

4 0

2 years ago

S1.1 The Acre-Foot. Hydraulic engineers in the United States often use, as a unit of volume of water, the acre-foot, defined as

Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

1072 acre foot

1331424000 kg

Explanation:

1 feet has 12 inches, so 2 in is 0.167 feet.

1 km^2 has 1 million m^2.

1 acre is 4074 m^2.

So, 1 km is 247 acres.

Then 26 km^2 is 6422 acres.

So, the volume of water is

6422 * 0.167 = 1072 acre-foot

Since one cubic meter of water has 1000 kg

One inch is 25.4 mm = 0.0254 m

One feet is 12 * 0.0254 = 0.3048 m

An acre-feet has a volume of

4074*0.3048 = 1242 m^3

And that is a mass of water of

1242 * 1000 = 1242000 kg/acre-feet

Therefore the mass of rainwater in the town is of

1072 * 1242000 = 1331424000 kg = 1331424 tons

4 0

3 years ago